CISCO CCNA 2 - Voucher Exam

1
Which protocol is used by e-mail servers to communicate with each other?
FTP
HTTP
TFTP
SMTP
POP
SNMP

2
Which command displays the active configuration file of a router?
Display startup-config
Display running-config
Show running-config
Show startup-config

3
What are the two basic functions used by a router to relay packets?
Filtering and switching
Path determination and filtering
Path determination and switching
Traffic analysis and filtering

4
Which of the following are advantages of using a static route? (Choose three.)
secure operation
highly adaptable
low maintenance configuration
low processor overhead
precise control of path selection

5
Which of the following are TCP services? (Choose three.)
address resolution
end-to-end communication
flow control
reliability of data delivery
path determination
data representation

6
What is the purpose of media access control?
It identifies which workstation has sent a frame.
It determines which Layer 3 protocol should handle a frame.
It identifies which Ethernet frame format to use on the network.
It determines which workstation on a shared medium LAN is allowed to transmit data.

7
Which of the following IP addresses are broadcast addresses if the subnet mask is 255.255.255.240? (Choose three.)
75.32.75.15
205.16.35.11
199.254.129.111
129.130.17.14
135.22.55.93
105.33.62.213

8
What is the default state of the interfaces on a router?
up, line protocol down
down, line protocol down
adminstratively down, line protocol down
up, line protocol up

9
How many bits are in IPv6 addresses?
16
32
64
96
128
258

10
Which OSI layer defines the functions of a router?
physical
data link
network
transport
session

11
What are the primary uses of Telnet? (Choose two.)
routing of data packets
transfer of data between end users
verification of application layer connectivity
connecting to remote network devices

12
Routers have different types of memory. Choose the answer that describes flash memory.
provides working storage
stores a fully functional IOS image
stores the startup configuration file
initializes the code used to boot the router

13


Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?
CDP running on Router D will gather information about routers A, B, C, and E.
By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.
If routers D and E are running different routing protocols, they will not exchange CDP information.
Router E can use CDP to identify the IOS running on Router B.

14
Which of the following describes path determination at the network layer?
router compares available ARP table information to select the best path
router uses routed protocol to determine the best path for data transmission
router compares available routing table information to select the best path
router uses a routing protocol to compare LAN equipment to route data through
switch compares available routing table information to select the best path

15
Which command turns on a router interface?
Router(config-if)# enable
Router(config-if)# no down
Router(config-if)# s0 active
Router(config-if)# interface up
Router(config-if)# no shutdown

If dynamic routing is not configured on a router, how do routing table updates occur?
Link state advertisements are sent from other routers.
Updates are made to the routing table by the administrator.
Best path information is communicated by network hosts.
The routing table is updated by neighboring routers.

17
What does TCP use to begin the three-way handshaking process?
The destination host sends an ACK segment.
The sending host sends a SYN segment.
The sending host sends a SYN and ACK segment.
The destination host sends a SYN segment.

18
Which statement accurately describes the way DHCP assigns IP addresses?
The network administator must re-assign a previously assigned address to the DHCP pool once a host no longer requires it.
DHCP offers a many-to-one ratio of IP addresses to users.
DHCP only allows users to obtain IP addresses if users have a profile in the DHCP pool.
DHCP has the ability to reclaim an IP address after a host workstation releases it.

19
Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask?
binary adding
hexadecimal anding
binary division
binary multiplication
binary ANDing

20
At which layer of the TCP/IP model does Telnet operate?
application
presentation
session
transport
internet
network access

21
Four concurrently running Telnet connections have been initiated. Which commands would enable the network administrator to view all of them? (Choose two.)
Router> show configuration
Router> show connections
Router> show sessions
Router# show configuration
Router# show connections
Router# show sessions

22
How many IP addresses can be assigned to host devices on each subnet of a Class B network with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.248?
3
5
6
8
30
8190

23


Pings between Atlanta and Dallas are successful. If a hostname table or DNS connection is not available, which command will successfully establish a remote connection from Atlanta to Dallas via Telnet?
Atlanta> connect Dallas
Atlanta> 197.72.3.2
Atlanta# 206.157.85.1
Atlanta# telnet Dallas

24
When does a distance vector routing protocol set a hold-down timer on a route?
when the metric value of the route decreases
when the route is marked as inaccessible
when the metric value for the route improves
when a regular update is received from a neighboring router

25
Which of the following is considered to be a multi-port bridge?
hub
switch
router
repeater

26
All numbering systems have a beginning or first digit and an end or last digit. Select the first and last digits representing Base 16, hexadecimal. (Choose two.)
0
A
9
F
15

27
Which of the following protocols operate at the application layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
FTP
TCP
UDP
HTTP

28
Which transport layer unit of information places the port number in the header?
data
segment
packet
frame
bit

29
For which condition will the ARP protocol be used?
The destination IP address is unknown.
The destination MAC address is unknown.
The source IP address is unknown.
The source MAC address is unknown.

30
Which protocol can be used to load or retrieve Cisco IOS images to or from a router?
SNMP
TFTP
UDP
TCP

31

What command enables CDP on the interface of a router?
Router(config-if)# cdp enable
Router(config-if)# cdp run
Router(config-if)# cdp start
Router(config-if)# cdp config

32


After issuing the command traceroute 192.168.4.2 from Router A, the following information is returned.

Tracing the route to Router_D (192.168.4.2)
1 Router_B (192.168.2.2) 16 msec 16 msec 16 msec
2
3

What can be concluded about the network shown in the graphic based on the output given?
Network 192.168.5.0 is missing from the routing table on Router A.
There is a problem with the connection between Router B and Router C.
Router C is not running CDP.
Some of the routers are non-Cisco devices.
Router B was not able to return ICMP TEMs to Router A.

33
What happens to a MAC address in a frame as it passes from router to router on its way to its destination?
Nothing, it remains the same.
MAC addresses are not passed from router to router.
It changes from router to router.
It keeps the MAC address of the first router it passes through.

34
An administrator has made routing protocol changes to a router's configuration. To ensure that the changes are implemented, the active configuration is saved and the router is reloaded. After the router has initialized, the output on the screen displays "Would you like to enter the initial configuration dialog?[yes/no]:" Why did this dialog appear?
There was a POST failure.
The incorrect IOS loaded.
There was an error in the startup configuration file.
The configuration register was set to ignore NVRAM.

35
Which criteria identify a Class B address? (Choose two.)
decimal number in first octet between 127 - 191
decimal number in first octet between 128 - 192
decimal number in first octet between 128 - 191
first bit of binary IP address is 0
first two bits of binary IP address are 10
first three bits of binary IP address are 110

36
Which of the following show commands would display the location of the IOS boot image?
show flash
show NVRAM
show version
show running-config
show startup-config

37
What is the purpose of the IOS enable secret command?
To allow the user to establish password protection on incoming Telnet sessions
To allow the user to establish password protection on the console terminal
To enable the user to access the User mode
To enable the user to enter a password that will be encrypted

38
Which of the following describes shared media environment?
a collision free environment made up of systems on the same medium
multiple hosts have access to the same cable ISP system
multiple hosts have access to the same medium.
multiple router environment in a mesh topology

39
What is the purpose of Positive Acknowledgment and Retransmission (PAR)?
PAR allows the presentation layer to request that data be resent in a format the destination host can process.
PAR provides a mechanism for the receiving device to request that all segments be retransmitted if one segment is corrupt.
PAR helps ensure that a number of data segments sent by one host are received by another host before additional data segments are sent.
PAR is used to renegotiate the window size during the synchronization process.

40
Which of the following describes the function of the Domain Name Service system?
It associates IP addresses to domain names.
It associates MAC addresses to domain names.
It associates DHCP addresses to domain names.
It associates TCP port numbers to domain names.

41
Which device imposes boundaries on broadcast traffic?
bridge
repeater
router
transceiver

42


The graphic depicts two workstations attached to two different hubs that are separated by a repeater. How many collision domains exist in this scenario?
one
two
three
four
five

43
Which TCP/IP layer provides services that support a logical connection between the sending and receiving hosts?
application
network
IP
transport
presentation
session

44
What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal attenuation affects the data delivery?
100 meters
185 meters
300 meters
500 meters

45
Which of the following types of networks pass a token sequentially to each host? (Choose two.)
Ethernet
Token Ring
FDDI
Frame Relay
ISDN

46

Identify the correct pairing of protocols and their classifications.
Routed - IP, IGRP
Routed - RIP, OSPF
Routing - IPX, RIP
Routing - OSPF, IGRP

47
Which Ethernet data link layer frame comparison is correct?
higher speed networks require more fields be included in the frame
the faster speed frame structures are incompatible with the slower speed networks
the frame structure changes with each higher speed, however, they are compatible with slower speeds
all speeds of Ethernet have nearly identical frame structures

48
Which switching mode describes a switch that transfers a frame as soon as the destination MAC address is read?
fragment-free
cut-through
store-and-forward
latency forwarding

49
Which TCP/IP model layer supports both LAN and WAN technologies?
network access layer
internet layer
transport layer
application layer

50
What is the first step a Cisco router performs after it is powered up?
Empties contents of NVRAM
Looks for the configuration file
Performs a POST
Starts the operating system

51
Which of the following are functions of RAM? (Choose three.)
contains startup configuration file
stores routing table
holds fast switching cache
retains contents when power is removed
stores running configuration file

52
How does a network device determine a collision has occurred on an Ethernet network?
The voltage of the signal on the networking media will increase.
The voltage of the signal on the networking media will decrease.
The voltage of the signal on the networking media will remain the same.
The voltage of the signal on the networking media will increase and decrease rapidly.

53
If a network node is connected to a switch port using full-duplex transmission, which of the following conditions exists?
a two-node collision domain
no collision domain
a multi-port collision domain
no broadcast domain
a two-node broadcast domain

54
Given the IP address 10.122.200.77 and subnet mask 255.255.255.224, what is the subnet address?
10.0.0.0
10.0.0.32
10.0.0.64
10.122.200.0
10.122.200.32
10.122.200.64

55
Which command will display routing table information about all known networks and subnetworks?
Router# show ip interfaces
Router# show ip connections
Router# show ip route
Router# show ip networks

56
Which of the following statements describe distance vector routing updates? (Choose three.)
Topology changes are transmitted to all routers at once.
Routers send their entire routing tables in distance vector updates.
Path cost metrics for each route are included in the updates.
Periodic updates are sent directly to every router in the network.
Routing updates are sent periodically to adjacent routers.
Routers send only the state of their own links in distance vector updates.

57
How many Telnet sessions can take place simultaneously on a router running a standard edition of the IOS?
4
5
8
10

58
What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?
dynamic
interior
static
standard

59
Which two statements are true regarding ICMP? (Choose two.)
ICMP provides reliability for the TCP/IP protocol stack.
ICMP is a component of the TCP/IP protocol stack.
ICMP notifies the sender that data transmission errors have occurred.
ICMP is connection-oriented.
ICMP messages are propagated to all intermediate devices.

60
Which of the following are benefits of creating a subnetwork structure in an IP network? (Choose three.)
permits network address duplication
allows for address flexibility
prevents address replication
provides broadcast containment
adds low-level security
allows for more network hosts available

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CISCO CCNA 3- PRACTICE FINAL

1
If EIGRP routing is employed and the successor route to a destination becomes unreachable or unreliable, which of the following would be used as a replacement?
the route flagged as active in the topology table
*the feasible successor route in the topology table
the default gateway in the neighbor table
the primary designated route in the topology table
the backup designated router in the routing table

2
Which VLAN implementation method requires less administration in the wiring closet and can provide notification if an unauthorized user attempts to connect to the network?
port-centric
static
*dynamic
geographic

3
What does the router shown in the graphic provide to the network? (Choose three.)
*forwarding of packets between VLANs
forwarding of broadcast frames between VLANs
*improved efficiency in bandwidth utilization
*connectivity of local hosts with remote resources
elimination of VLAN configuration errors
prevention of switching loops

4
Which of the following are layers in the hierarchical design model? (Choose three.)
gateway
*access
*distribution
network
*core
domain


5
What is required for OSPF routers to share routing information?
designated routers
a backup designated router
*neighbor adjacencies
an NBMA network topology
links configured on the 224.0.0.0 network

6
Which of the following statements describe trunking? (Choose two.)
*Trunking bundles multiple virtual links over one physical link.
Trunking decreases the number of switch ports available for hosts.
Trunking complicates the physical interconnection of switches in the wiring closet.
*Trunks can be configured to carry traffic for several VLANs between switches.
Trunking requires one switch port for each configured VLAN.

7
The network 192.1.1.0 has been subnetted for a network design. The 192.1.1.16/28 subnet has been chosen for further subnetting to provide for point-to-point serial link addressing. How many serial link subnets can be created while minimizing the number of wasted addresses?
1
2
*4
6
8
16

8
The spanning tree election process has taken place on a network containing five bridges. How many total root bridges have been elected?
*1
3
5
one per trunk port

9
In which STP state does a switch port only receive BPDUs?
*blocking
learning
disabled
listening
forwarding

10
Which command is used to copy a backup configuration file from a server to the non-volatile memory of a switch?
Switch# copy startup-config tftp
*Switch# copy tftp startup-config
Switch# copy NVRAM tftp
Switch# copy tftp NVRAM
Switch# copy tftp flash

11
Which of the switches shown in the graphic will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
*Cat-A
Cat-B
Cat-C
Cat-D

12
Under which of the following circumstances might two routers have trouble establishing a neighbor relationship in an OSPF network? (Choose three.)
*Hello packets are not sent from either neighbor.
*The interfaces are on different network types.
The network command has put the connected interfaces into the same OSPF area.
Slow network connections cause OSPF advertisements to time out.
*Authentication passwords or keys are different.

13
Which of the following are characteristics of link-state routing protocols? (Choose three.)
*collection of routing information from within a defined area of the network
*view of network from neighbor's perspective
*independent calculation of best paths to all destinations
propagation of incorrect information minimized
demonstration of universal compatibility and simplicity

14
What is the minimum amount of bandwidth that Layer 2 LAN switches should provide to servers?
1 Mbps
10 Mbps
*100 Mbps
1000 Mbps
1 Gbps

15
A new color laser printer has been configured on the Marketing VLAN. Users on the Sales VLAN would also like to have access to this printer. What must be done in order for the Sales department users to be able to access this device?
A root bridge must be elected to allow the traffic to cross.
A bridge must be configured with a compatible bridging protocol.
*A router must be installed and configured to connect the VLANs.
No traffic should be allowed to pass between VLANs.
The print server must be configured to accept connections over VTP.

16
Which of the following is the metric that OSPF uses to determine the best route to a destination network?
administrative distance
*cost
hop count
link delay

17
What is required for full-duplex Ethernet transmissions?
one pair of conductors in the cable and a switched connection between each node
two pairs of conductors in the cable and a switched connection between each node
*two pairs of conductors in the cable and a non-switched connection between each node
four pairs of conductors in the cable and a non-switched connection between each node

18
What affects network availability? (Choose three.)
location
*throughput
user proficiency
*response time
workstation speed
*access to resources

19
How does an Ethernet switch improve network performance? (Choose three.)
*allows multiple frames to be forwarded simultaneously
decreases the number of broadcast domains
increases network latency
eliminates unnecessary broadcast frames
*reduces the size of collision domains
*increases the number of collision domains

20
Which type of address does OSPF use to initiate new adjacencies and to ensure that neighbor routers are functioning?
broadcast
loopback
*multicast
unicast

21
What problems can occur on a redundant switched network? (Choose three.)
*A destination device may receive a frame more than once.
*The switch may learn an incorrect MAC address-to-port mapping.
*Broadcast storms may make the network appear down.
A frame may be dropped before reaching its destination.
The network may not converge.

22
A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to most efficiently provide for the number of host addresses required by Router C, while wasting the fewest addresses?
/31
/30
/29
/28
/27
*/26

23
When the mode LED on a Cisco switch is set to STAT, what port status is indicated by a green flashing port LED?
no link
port is not forwarding
*port is sending or receiving data
port is sending, but not receiving
link fault


24
How many collision domains will there be in the entire network shown in the graphic if Hub1 is replaced with a Layer 2 switch?
2
3
*4
7
8
10

25
Which of the following are performed by a switch port that is in the forwarding state in an STP network? (Choose three.)
discarding data traffic
*receiving data traffic
*forwarding data traffic
recalculating BPDUs
*receiving BPDUs
blocking BPDUs

26
Which of the following are considered limitations of RIP v1? (Choose three.)
*It does not support authentication.
It sends updates as broadcasts on 255.255.255.255.
*It does not send subnet mask information in its updates.
It is not widely supported in multivendor routing environments.
*It does not support equal-cost load balancing.

27
What will be the result of OSPF DR/BDR elections in the network shown in the diagram? (Choose three.)
*R1 will be the DR for the 10.1.1.0/24 network.
*R1 will be the DR for the 10.1.2.0/24 network.
*R1 will be the DR for the 10.1.3.0/24 network.
R2 will be the DR for the 10.1.1.0/24 network.
R3 will be the DR for the 10.1.2.0/24 network.
R4 will be the DR for the 10.1.3.0/24 network.

28
An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the graphic?
*forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3
add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table
forward the frame out Interface3
discard the frame
forward the frame out all interfaces
forward the frame out Interface2

29
A redundant switched topology is being installed in an enterprise. Which of the following should be configured to ensure that this network operates efficiently?
TTL
*STP
BID
BPDU
ARP

30
How can MAC address table entries be removed from a switch? (Choose two.)
*Power cycle the switch to clear all dynamically learned addresses.
The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries.
*The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries.
The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries.
Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.

31
What is the term that describes the cabling between the MDF and IDF locations as shown in the graphic?
horizontal cross-connect
horizontal cross-cabling
*vertical cross-connect
vertical cross-cabling

32
An entire workgroup has lost network connectivity. After shutting down and restarting the workgroup switch in the wiring closet, it is observed that the switch system LED is amber. What should be done?
The switch should be reconfigured.
*The switch should be replaced in order to restore connectivity to the workgroup.
The switch should be allowed to complete POST before its configuration is checked.
The switch has returned to service, however its configuration should be checked.


33
Which of the following statements about link-state advertisements are correct? (Choose three.)
LSAs are sent to neighboring routers on a regular basis.
LSAs are used by a router to determine if a neighboring router is online.
*LSAs are multicast to all routers in the area.
*LSAs contain the topological database of the sending router.
Routers use LSAs to learn about the topology of the entire network.
*LSAs are sent when the router detects a topology change.

34
A switch that was previously attached to another VTP management domain is added to an existing VTP domain. VLAN information on all the other switches in the existing VTP management domain is lost. Why did this happen?
Adding the new switch caused spanning tree protocol to recalculate the network and erase the existing VLAN configurations.
The new switch BID was higher than the existing VTP server, causing the new switch to broadcast incorrect VLAN information to the domain.
*The new switch had a higher VTP configuration revision number than the other switches in the domain and erased the VLAN information on the VTP server and VTP clients.
The new switch exceeded the maximum number of switches permitted in a management domain.
The switch advertised VTP version 2 information to the network, causing the existing VLAN data to be overwritten.

35
Refer to the topology and link path costs shown in the graphic. What is the total cost of the path that OSPF will use between the Data_Center router and the BldgA router?
2
11
*12
65
66

36
Which LAN design requirement addresses user-to user and user-to-application connectivity?
adaptability
manageability
scalability
*functionality

37
A router is configured to connect to a trunked uplink as shown in the graphic. A packet is received on the FastEthernet 0/1 physical interface from VLAN 1. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?
The router will ignore the packet because the source and destination are on the same broadcast domain.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
*The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.

38
Which of the following are features of the distribution layer? (Choose three.)
VLAN routing
MAC layer filtering
*security
microsegmentation
*packet filtering with access control lists
*workgroup access


39
The LAN devices are configured as shown in the diagram. Why are Host1 and Host2 unable to communicate? (Choose three.)
*A router is required to forward traffic between the hosts.
*The switch ports are on different VLANs.
The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN.
The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.
*The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet.
The hosts are configured on different logical networks.

40
While deleting the VLANs from a switch, a network administrator receives the following message, "A default VLAN may not be deleted". What did the administrator do to cause this message to be displayed?
The no vlan all command was entered.
The no switchport mode access command was not properly entered.
*The no vlan 1 command was entered.
The no vlan command was entered in database configuration mode.
The no default vlan command was entered.
The administrator attempted to delete a VLAN that still has switch ports assigned to it.


41
Which of the following statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)
VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
*All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.
Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled.
*All interfaces are set to auto.
Enable password is configured as cisco.
*The flash directory contains the IOS image.

42
What is indicated when an EIGRP route is in the passive state?
The route has the highest path cost of all routes to that destination network.
The route must be confirmed by neighboring routers before it is put in the active state.
The route is a feasible successor and will be used if the active route fails.
There is no activity on the route to that network.
*The route is viable and can be used to forward traffic.

43
Which of the following are characteristics of a router-on-a-stick design for inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.)
*multiple logical router interfaces
multiple physical router interfaces
*one logical router interface
one physical router interface
*multiple logical networks defined for each VLAN
one logical network defined for each VLAN

44
Which of the following tables does DUAL use to calculate the lowest cost routes to each destination?
routing table and topology table
neighbor table and routing table
*neighbor table and topology table
neighbor table and adjacency table

45
Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure a router interface to serve the newly added network 192.168.10.64/27 and to advertise this network over RIP v2? (Choose three.)
*Configure RIP v2 with the network command and the IP network number for the new network.
Configure RIP v2 with the network command and the IP host address and subnet mask for the newly activated interface.
Configure the router with the ip subnet-zero command so that this network can be added and advertised.
*Apply a network host address and subnet mask to the newly activated interface.
*Activate the routing protocol with the router rip version 2 command.
Configure RIP on the other routers in the enterprise with an entry for the newly added network.

46
Using Telnet, a network administrator is unable to log in to a switch located at another office in order to make configuration changes to it. What could be the problem?
The managmement station does not have access to a full-duplex Fast Ethernet link on the switch.
*VLAN 1 on the switch is not configured for TCP/IP network access.
The switch must be managed from the local LAN.
The switch hostname has not been set.

47
The routers in the diagram are configured for RIP v2 on network 1.0.0.0. Additional static routes are configured as shown in the graphic. What will RA do with a packet it receives on interface 1.1.1.1 that is destined for host 2.2.1.1 on a remote network?
buffer it until it learns a route to 2.2.0.0
forward it to 1.1.1.2
forward it to 1.1.2.2
*forward it to 1.1.3.2
forward it to 2.1.1.2
drop the packet

48
Which strategies can a company take to enhance network reliability through redundancy? (Choose two.)
*Eliminate single points of failure.
Flood frames for unknown destinations.
Send multiple frames to an end device.
*Design alternate routes to a destination.
Forward MAC address tables to all switches on the network.
Eliminate multiple paths to the same destination.


49
Which interior routing protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.)
*OSPF
RIP v1
*RIP v2
*EIGRP
BGP
IGRP

50
Router XYZ is to be added to OSPF area 0. Which of the following is the correct syntax for enabling OSPF on this router?
XYZ(config)# router ospf
*XYZ(config)# router ospf 0
XYZ(config)# router ospf 10
XYZ(config)# router ospf process 0
XYZ(config)# router ospf process 10
XYZ(config)# router ospf processid 10

51
Users are complaining that resources housed on a remote network have become unavailable. Which command can the administrator use to check whether this destination network is known to the local router?
*router# show ip route
router# show route
router# show ip rip
router# show rip
router# show protocol

52
What is the purpose of a default route?
A default route will cause packets addressed to unknown destination networks to be dropped.
*A default route will cause packets addressed to unknown destination networks to be sent to a designated router interface.
A default route will cause packets addressed to known destinations to prefer a specified path to the destination network.
A default route will direct packets for all destination networks to a designated router and router interface.

53
Refer to the graphic. Which point must be reached before a bridge will forward a frame?
A
B
C
D
E
*F

54
The 192.168.10.0/27 network is to be further subnetted with a /30 mask. Assuming that ip subnet-zero is enabled, what are the first two addresses in the first resulting subnet that can be used for point-to-point links?
*192.168.10.1
*192.168.10.2
192.168.10.33
192.168.10.34
192.168.10.193
192.168.10.194

55
Which distribution layer devices enhance Layer 2 switching with Layer 3 functionality? (Choose two.)
multilayer routers
*multilayer switches
bridges
managed hubs
VLANs
*a switch with a router module

56
What do switches configured with VLANs provide to an enterprise network? (Choose three.)
bridging between VLANs
*security
*broadcast control
physical grouping of users
*logical grouping of users
enlargement of collison domains

57
A switched Ethernet network is experiencing unusually heavy traffic to the extent that network delays have become intolerable. While investigating the problem, a network administrator disconnects a redundant uplink between two switches. The excessive traffic quickly subsides. What was the likely cause of this problem?
*broadcast storms
routing loops
multiple frame copies
load balancing
unicast frame forwarding

58
Which Ethernet device has the highest latency factor?
transceiver
hub
MAU
*router
switch

59
How do EIGRP routers actively maintain neighbor relationships?
They dynamically learn new routes.
They continously monitor the status of their own ports.
They exchange their entire neighbor tables with directly attached routers.
*They exchange hello packets with their neighbors every five seconds, by default.
They compare known routes to received updates.

60
Which of the following statements regarding server placement are correct? (Choose two.)
*Enterprise servers should be located in the MDF.
Enterprise servers should be located in an IDF.
Workgroup servers should be located in the MDF.
*Workgroup servers should be located in an IDF.
Both workgroup and enterprise servers should be located in the MDF.
Both workgroup and enterprise servers should be located in an IDF.

61
How are RIP v1 and RIP v2 similar to one another? (Choose three.)
*They both use hop count as a metric.
*They both have the same metric value for infinite distance.
They both broadcast their updates to their neighbors.
They both send subnet mask information in their updates.
They both provide for authentication of update sources.
*They both use split horizon to prevent routing loops.

62
Which algorithm does EIGRP use to calculate routes?
PDM
RTP
*DUAL
LSA
postamble();

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CISCO CCNA 4 - Voucher Exam

CISCO CCNA4- VOUCHER EXAM v.3.1

1
Which of the following are benefits of creating a subnetwork structure in an IP network? (Choose three.)
permits network address duplication
*allows for address flexibility
*prevents address replication
provides broadcast containment
adds low-level security
*allows for more network hosts available

2
Refer to the graphic. Which of the following are true regarding the route summary EIGRP would utilize for the networks on RouterA? (Choose two.)
The networks can be summarized with auto-summary.
*The network summary must be manually configured.
The default subnet mask can be used to summarize the networks.
The networks can be summarized with 172.16.64.0/26.
*The networks can be summarized with 172.16.64.0/27.
The networks can be summarized with 172.16.64.0/28.

3
Which address does a bridge use to build its bridging table?
destination IP address
*destination MAC address
source IP address
source MAC address

4
Which of the following do switches send at regular intervals to eliminate switching loops?
bi-directional protocol data units
binary protocol data units
*bridge protocol data units
buffered protocol data units

5
What is required to configure multiple DLCIs on a single router interface?
A single network address
Multiple LMIs
*Subinterfaces
Multiple IP addresses on the same subnet

6
Which component designates a device that is not compatible with ISDN and requires a terminal adapter?
NT1
*NT2
TE1
TE2

7
What is an advantage of the use of layers in the OSI reference model?
It breaks network communications into larger parts.
It increases complexity.
*It prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers.
It requires the use of single-vendor equipment for hardware and software communications.

8
What is the purpose of the show CDP neighbors command?
to send a summary of the local router configuration to all directly attached Cisco devices
*to display information about all Cisco devices that are directly connected to a local router
to display information about all Cisco networks in the WAN
to display addressing information about all remote routers
to display the names of all OSPF neighbors in the local area

9
Which type of ACL only checks the source address?
Extended ACL
General ACL
Source ACL
*Standard ACL

10
Which of the following improves security in PPP authentication?
LCP
NCP
*CHAP
PAP

11
For which condition will the ARP protocol be used?
The destination IP address is unknown.
*The destination MAC address is unknown.
The source IP address is unknown.
The source MAC address is unknown.

12
What is the name of that point in a LAN where the responsibility of the network administrator ends and the responsibility of the telco begins?
point of presence
local loop
DTE
*demarcation

13
What determines how much data a sending station running TCP/IP can transmit before it must receive an acknowledgment?
segment size
transmission rate
*bandwidth
window size
sequence number

14
Which utility can be used to verify connectivity through all seven layers of the OSI model?
netstat
ping
*Telnet
traceroute

15
Which statements about VLANs are true? (Choose three.)
VLANs are restricted to a physical segment.
*They are logical groupings of devices.
*User hosts can be grouped by function.
*VLANs are configured by software.
VLANs are standardized.

16
Which of the following IP addresses are broadcast addresses if the subnet mask is 255.255.255.240? (Choose three.)
*75.32.75.15
205.16.35.11
*199.254.129.111
*129.130.17.143
135.22.55.93
105.33.62.213

17
Which networking device performs path determination?
a hub
a switch
*a router
a bridge

18
Which device allows data communication to occur between VLANs?
bridge
hub
switch
*router

19
Which method does a router use to build a Frame Relay map?
ARP requests
RARP requests
Inverse RARP requests
*Inverse ARP requests

20
Routers and switches both perform important tasks in an internetwork. Which of the following are distinguishing differences between them? (Choose two.)
Routers are used more than switches.
Routers need no configuration to operate.
*Routers and switches operate at different layers of the OSI model.
Routers and switches route different sets of protocols.
*Routers block broadcasts.
Switches create broadcast domains.

21
By default, which of the following metrics is given the most weight by IGRP?
*bandwidth
hop count
load
reliability

22
Which statement is correct concerning routing and routed protocols?
*A routed protocol allows the routers to communicate with other routers and maintain tables for a routing protocol.
A routing protocol allows routers to communicate with other routers and maintain tables for a routed protocol.
Routers only need to use routing protocols to work properly.
There is no difference between routed and routing protocols.

23
What does the ISDN BRI provide?
23 B channels and one 64 kbps D channel
total bit rate up to 1.536 Mbps
two 56 kbps B channels and one 64 kbps D channel
*two 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel

24
Which of the following EIGRP functions is the responsibility of the IP protocol-dependent module (PDM)? (Choose three.)
the calculation of successor and feasible successor routes for IP and IPX traffic
*the notification of DUAL when IP routing information is received
the communication of information about IP routes with neighbor routers
the maintenance of the IP routing table
*the exchange of hello packets with other IP-enabled routers
*the insertion of lowest cost paths into the routing table

25
Which of the following are functions of a WAN? (Choose three.)
*permit real-time communication between users
allow users access to high bandwidth
provide full-time local service
*provide e-mail and e-commerce services
connect physically adjacent devices
*provide access to computers in other locations

26
Which command will display statistics for all interfaces configured on a router?
list interfaces
*show interfaces
show processes
show statistics

27
What enables routers to learn of destination networks?
proxy ARP
CAM table exchanges
host name tables
*routing protocols
DNS lookups

28
Which type of handshaking occurs when using CHAP?
one-way
two-way
*three-way
four-way

29
Which statement describes the store and forward transmission mode of an Ethernet switch?
It is also referred to as a hybrid mode or as error sensing mode.
It requires the switch to read the first 64 bytes of an Ethernet frame and then begins to forward the data.
It decreases the latency of the transmission but has very little error detection.
*It increases latency with large frames, but error detection is high.

30
When must data be sent by way of the default route?
The destination network is on a different network than the source.
The destination network is not directly connected to the router.
The destination network is a stub network.
*There is no entry in the routing table for the destination network.

31
Which statements describe the use of Link State Advertisements (LSA)? (Choose two.)
*LSAs are generated when changes in the network occur.
Link state advertisements are refreshed every 60 minutes.
The router copies the information received from each LSA packet into the routing table.
*Routers exchange LSAs to build and maintain topology databases.
Forwarding LSAs can increase the occurrence of routing loops.

32
Identify the correct pairing of a protocol and its classification.
BGP-Interior
IGRP-Exterior
OSPF-Exterior
*RIP-Interior

33
Which of the following is the ISDN Layer 2 signaling protocol?
BRI
PRI
LAPA
*LAPD

34
What transmission channels are provided by an ISDN BRI service?
23 64 kbps B channels and one 64 kbps D channel
30 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
two 56 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
*two 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
two 64 kbps D channels and one 16 kbps B channel
23 64 kbps D channels and one 64 kbps B channel

35
The switches in the graphic are configured for VTP as shown. Select the statements that correctly describe the operation of these switches. (Choose two.)
A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.
An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.
*A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.
*An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2.

36
What is the default ISDN encapsulation used on Cisco ISDN routers?
SLIP
PPP
*HDLC
VPP

37
Which of the following represents a group of routers under a common administration and is required when configuring routing protocols such as IGRP or EIGRP?
control group
*autonomous system
corporate system
Domain Name System
local-area network
wide-area network

38
Given a router that has already been configured, what is the correct loading sequence when powering on?
bootstrap, RAM, operating system
bootstrap, configuration file, operating system
*bootstrap, operating system, configuration file
operating system, configuration file, RAM

39
Which of the following are routed protocols?
AppleTalk, IP, IGRP
*IP, AppleTalk, IPX
IP, RIP, IPX
IPX, OSPF, EIGRP

40
Which functions are carried out by switches and bridges when building the CAM tables? (Choose three.)
builds the table using unknown source MAC addresses from received frames
builds the table using unknown destination MAC addresses from received frames
*time stamps the entries for each address
*time stamps the BPDU of each frame received
*maps switch port numbers with the associated MAC address
maps switch port numbers with the associated network address

41
All the routers in the network shown in the graphic are part of the same OSPF area. All the routers were powered up simultaneously, except Router E, which was brought online the following day. Which router will be the BDR after the network has converged?
Router A
Router B
Router C
Router D
*Router E

42
Which reason is correct for having at least one true condition in an ACL?
If there is not a true statement, all packets are returned to the sender.
*The implicit "deny any" statement will deny all traffic.
True conditions only test the status of the router.
You are not required to have a true statement in ACL.

43
Which layer is responsible for organizing bits using framing?
Layer 1
*Layer 2
Layer 3
Layer 4

44
What is the purpose of the IOS enable secret command?
*to set password protection on incoming Telnet sessions
to set password protection on the console terminal
to allow a user access to User mode
to allow a user to enter a password that will be encrypted

45
What reduces the problems of routing loops due to incorrect updates?
count to infinity
distance vector timers
event-triggered updates
*split horizon

46
Which of the following is true regarding routing metrics?
All routing protocols use the same metrics.
IGRP uses bandwidth as its only metric.
*Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.
The larger metric generally represents the better path.

47
Which of the following messages are sent from a DHCP server to a client during a successful configuration process? (Choose two.)
DHCPDISCOVER
*DHCPOFFER
*DHCPREQUEST
DHCPACK

48
What are the effects of LAN segmentation using a switch? (Choose three.)
*dedicated bandwidth between source and destinations
*enlarged collision domains
decreased broadcast domains
*increased number of collision domains
increased latency in the network

49
The Cake router shown in the graphic has multiple RIP version 2 paths to the network attached to E0 of the Pie router. Which interface on the Cake router will be used to forward a packet from the 192.168.5.0 network to the 192.168.13.0 network?
E0
*E1
S0
S1
It will load balance across S0 and S1.
It will load balance across S0, S1 and E1.

50
What is true about windowing?
It always requires separate acknowledgements for each segment sent.
*It controls the amount of data that can be sent before acknowledgement is required.
It requires the sender to re-establish a connection if no acknowledgement is received.
It allows TCP/IP to measure transmitted data in segments.

51
Company XYZ has a Class B address of 135.166.0.0 and currently has 4 individual segments to subnet. The company will be adding 5 additional segments over this year and 7 additional networks the following year. What subnet mask should be used on the network in order to support the largest number of hosts per subnet?
255.255.224.0
*255.255.240.0
255.255.248.0
255.255.250.0
255.255.252.0

52
Which of the following is true regarding latency?
CSMA/CD requires no latency.
It is also called asymmetry.
It is based entirely on distance.
*Networking devices add to latency.

53
What is the length, in bits, of an Ethernet address?
12
24
32
*48
80
128

54
How many bits are in IPv6 addresses?
16
32
64
96
*128
258

55
If the above network has been configured with RIPv2, how many usable host addresses are in the 192.168.10.192 subnet?
0
*2
4
6
8

56
Which methods do frame relay switches use to inform DTEs of congestion within the frame relay network?
CCP and LMI
CIR and LATE
DLCI and SPID
*FECN and BECN

57
What is the term for the cabling that connects the customer premises equipment to the CO switch?
demarc
local loop
final mile
*DTE
trunk line

58
An administrator has an older 1900 switch located on the edge of the network. What can the network administrator do to ensure that it does not become the root bridge of the spanning-tree network?
decrease the BPDU hello timer update on the 1900
assign the highest IP address to the switch that should be the root
assign the lowest IP address to new root bridge
*assign the lowest priority to the switch that should be the root
assign the highest priority to the new root bridge
decrease the BID on the 1900 switch

59
How is the number 225 represented in binary?
11001111
11011011
11110011
*11100001

60
What is the function of the first phase of PPP negotiation?
link termination
authentication of communicating peers
*link establishment and configuration
network layer protocol configuration

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CCNA 4 - Module 6 Exam Answers

1 For which platform was UNIX first marketed commercially?
• workstations and servers
• workstations
* network servers
• large mainframe systems

2 How does RMON gather statistics on a segment?
• analyzes traps on the segment
• polls packets on the segment
* analyzes every frame on the segment
• analyzes source and destination addresses

3 Which operating systems support multiuser capability? (Choose three.)
* Linux
• Windows 98
• Windows ME
* Windows XP
* Windows 2000

4 Which statements are true regarding configuring SNMP? (Choose three.)
• It is best to use the default read-only community strings in enterprise networks.
* It is not advisable to use the default read-write community string in an enterprise network.
* More than one read-only community string is supported.
* Authorized management stations can modify MIB objects with read-write access specified.
• The maximum number of read-write strings supported is one.

5 Which statements describe the Windows 2000 operating system family? (Choose three.)
* .NET Server was designed to run enterprise level web and FTP services.
• Active Directory services run on both Windows 2000 Professional and Windows 2000 Server.
* The entire family of Windows 2000 operating systems can operate as a file, print, FTP or web server.
• Both Windows 2000 Professional and Server can support up to 256 simultaneous dialup sessions.
* .NET server was designed to compete with Linux and Unix.

6 Which of the following is a collection of software which includes a GUI interface to allow the network administrator to monitor and manage the network?
* network management application
• network management agent
• management information base
• network management protocol

7 Which command would enable logging on all supported destinations?
• Router(config)# logging 131.152.0.0
• Router(config)# logging routerA
* Router(config)# logging on
• Router(config)# logging enable

8 How does SNMPv3 address the security shortcomings of SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c?
• improved SMI features
• support for centralized and distributed management
* secure access to MIBs
• control of heterogeneous networks

9 Which means of communication does an SNMP network agent use to provide a network management station with important but unsolicited information?
• query
• broadcast
• ICMP ping
* trap
• poll

10 Which of the following describes the community strings used for SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c? (Choose two.)
* The community strings are sent using UDP.
• The read only string on most devices is set to private.
• The read/write string on most devices is set to public.
• Only the NMA needs to be configured with the community strings.
* The community strings are sent across the network in cleartext.

11

In the above illustration, which configuration commands can be used to specify the location of a managed device and the main system contacts for the device? (Choose two.)
• SanJose(config-if)# snmp-server SanJose
* Atlanta(config)# snmp-server contact JPSmith
• Atlanta(config)# snmp contact JPSmith
* SanJose(config)# snmp-server location SanJose
• Chicago#(config)# snmp chicago

12 Which features are supported by the Mac OS X system that make it a competitive choice for operating systems? (Choose four.)
* protected memory
• sixty-two bit addressing
* preemptive multitasking
• open source operating system code
* symmetric multiprocessing
* Appletalk-to-Windows network connectivity

13 An SNMPv1 agent would issue a GetResponse message to reply to which NMS requests? (Choose three.)
* GetRequest
• GetBulkRequest
* GetNextRequest
* SetRequest
• GetNextbulkRequest

14 Why are SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c community strings considered a security risk?
• SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c encapsulations are not encrypted by default.
* SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c community strings are sent as cleartext.
• SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c are limited to 32-bit counters.
• SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c uses a connectionless protocol.

15 Which of the following does SNMP use to hold information collected about the network?
• network management station
• network management database
* management information base
• database information agent

16 Which of the following are examples of network management applications? (Choose two.)
• Windows 2000 Professional
* Ciscoworks2000
* HP Openview
• Red Hat Linux
• Cisco ConfigMaker

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