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CISCO CCNA 4 - Voucher Exam

CISCO CCNA4- VOUCHER EXAM v.3.1

1
Which of the following are benefits of creating a subnetwork structure in an IP network? (Choose three.)
permits network address duplication
*allows for address flexibility
*prevents address replication
provides broadcast containment
adds low-level security
*allows for more network hosts available

2
Refer to the graphic. Which of the following are true regarding the route summary EIGRP would utilize for the networks on RouterA? (Choose two.)
The networks can be summarized with auto-summary.
*The network summary must be manually configured.
The default subnet mask can be used to summarize the networks.
The networks can be summarized with 172.16.64.0/26.
*The networks can be summarized with 172.16.64.0/27.
The networks can be summarized with 172.16.64.0/28.

3
Which address does a bridge use to build its bridging table?
destination IP address
*destination MAC address
source IP address
source MAC address

4
Which of the following do switches send at regular intervals to eliminate switching loops?
bi-directional protocol data units
binary protocol data units
*bridge protocol data units
buffered protocol data units

5
What is required to configure multiple DLCIs on a single router interface?
A single network address
Multiple LMIs
*Subinterfaces
Multiple IP addresses on the same subnet

6
Which component designates a device that is not compatible with ISDN and requires a terminal adapter?
NT1
*NT2
TE1
TE2

7
What is an advantage of the use of layers in the OSI reference model?
It breaks network communications into larger parts.
It increases complexity.
*It prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers.
It requires the use of single-vendor equipment for hardware and software communications.

8
What is the purpose of the show CDP neighbors command?
to send a summary of the local router configuration to all directly attached Cisco devices
*to display information about all Cisco devices that are directly connected to a local router
to display information about all Cisco networks in the WAN
to display addressing information about all remote routers
to display the names of all OSPF neighbors in the local area

9
Which type of ACL only checks the source address?
Extended ACL
General ACL
Source ACL
*Standard ACL

10
Which of the following improves security in PPP authentication?
LCP
NCP
*CHAP
PAP

11
For which condition will the ARP protocol be used?
The destination IP address is unknown.
*The destination MAC address is unknown.
The source IP address is unknown.
The source MAC address is unknown.

12
What is the name of that point in a LAN where the responsibility of the network administrator ends and the responsibility of the telco begins?
point of presence
local loop
DTE
*demarcation

13
What determines how much data a sending station running TCP/IP can transmit before it must receive an acknowledgment?
segment size
transmission rate
*bandwidth
window size
sequence number

14
Which utility can be used to verify connectivity through all seven layers of the OSI model?
netstat
ping
*Telnet
traceroute

15
Which statements about VLANs are true? (Choose three.)
VLANs are restricted to a physical segment.
*They are logical groupings of devices.
*User hosts can be grouped by function.
*VLANs are configured by software.
VLANs are standardized.

16
Which of the following IP addresses are broadcast addresses if the subnet mask is 255.255.255.240? (Choose three.)
*75.32.75.15
205.16.35.11
*199.254.129.111
*129.130.17.143
135.22.55.93
105.33.62.213

17
Which networking device performs path determination?
a hub
a switch
*a router
a bridge

18
Which device allows data communication to occur between VLANs?
bridge
hub
switch
*router

19
Which method does a router use to build a Frame Relay map?
ARP requests
RARP requests
Inverse RARP requests
*Inverse ARP requests

20
Routers and switches both perform important tasks in an internetwork. Which of the following are distinguishing differences between them? (Choose two.)
Routers are used more than switches.
Routers need no configuration to operate.
*Routers and switches operate at different layers of the OSI model.
Routers and switches route different sets of protocols.
*Routers block broadcasts.
Switches create broadcast domains.

21
By default, which of the following metrics is given the most weight by IGRP?
*bandwidth
hop count
load
reliability

22
Which statement is correct concerning routing and routed protocols?
*A routed protocol allows the routers to communicate with other routers and maintain tables for a routing protocol.
A routing protocol allows routers to communicate with other routers and maintain tables for a routed protocol.
Routers only need to use routing protocols to work properly.
There is no difference between routed and routing protocols.

23
What does the ISDN BRI provide?
23 B channels and one 64 kbps D channel
total bit rate up to 1.536 Mbps
two 56 kbps B channels and one 64 kbps D channel
*two 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel

24
Which of the following EIGRP functions is the responsibility of the IP protocol-dependent module (PDM)? (Choose three.)
the calculation of successor and feasible successor routes for IP and IPX traffic
*the notification of DUAL when IP routing information is received
the communication of information about IP routes with neighbor routers
the maintenance of the IP routing table
*the exchange of hello packets with other IP-enabled routers
*the insertion of lowest cost paths into the routing table

25
Which of the following are functions of a WAN? (Choose three.)
*permit real-time communication between users
allow users access to high bandwidth
provide full-time local service
*provide e-mail and e-commerce services
connect physically adjacent devices
*provide access to computers in other locations

26
Which command will display statistics for all interfaces configured on a router?
list interfaces
*show interfaces
show processes
show statistics

27
What enables routers to learn of destination networks?
proxy ARP
CAM table exchanges
host name tables
*routing protocols
DNS lookups

28
Which type of handshaking occurs when using CHAP?
one-way
two-way
*three-way
four-way

29
Which statement describes the store and forward transmission mode of an Ethernet switch?
It is also referred to as a hybrid mode or as error sensing mode.
It requires the switch to read the first 64 bytes of an Ethernet frame and then begins to forward the data.
It decreases the latency of the transmission but has very little error detection.
*It increases latency with large frames, but error detection is high.

30
When must data be sent by way of the default route?
The destination network is on a different network than the source.
The destination network is not directly connected to the router.
The destination network is a stub network.
*There is no entry in the routing table for the destination network.

31
Which statements describe the use of Link State Advertisements (LSA)? (Choose two.)
*LSAs are generated when changes in the network occur.
Link state advertisements are refreshed every 60 minutes.
The router copies the information received from each LSA packet into the routing table.
*Routers exchange LSAs to build and maintain topology databases.
Forwarding LSAs can increase the occurrence of routing loops.

32
Identify the correct pairing of a protocol and its classification.
BGP-Interior
IGRP-Exterior
OSPF-Exterior
*RIP-Interior

33
Which of the following is the ISDN Layer 2 signaling protocol?
BRI
PRI
LAPA
*LAPD

34
What transmission channels are provided by an ISDN BRI service?
23 64 kbps B channels and one 64 kbps D channel
30 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
two 56 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
*two 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
two 64 kbps D channels and one 16 kbps B channel
23 64 kbps D channels and one 64 kbps B channel

35
The switches in the graphic are configured for VTP as shown. Select the statements that correctly describe the operation of these switches. (Choose two.)
A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.
An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.
*A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.
*An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2.

36
What is the default ISDN encapsulation used on Cisco ISDN routers?
SLIP
PPP
*HDLC
VPP

37
Which of the following represents a group of routers under a common administration and is required when configuring routing protocols such as IGRP or EIGRP?
control group
*autonomous system
corporate system
Domain Name System
local-area network
wide-area network

38
Given a router that has already been configured, what is the correct loading sequence when powering on?
bootstrap, RAM, operating system
bootstrap, configuration file, operating system
*bootstrap, operating system, configuration file
operating system, configuration file, RAM

39
Which of the following are routed protocols?
AppleTalk, IP, IGRP
*IP, AppleTalk, IPX
IP, RIP, IPX
IPX, OSPF, EIGRP

40
Which functions are carried out by switches and bridges when building the CAM tables? (Choose three.)
builds the table using unknown source MAC addresses from received frames
builds the table using unknown destination MAC addresses from received frames
*time stamps the entries for each address
*time stamps the BPDU of each frame received
*maps switch port numbers with the associated MAC address
maps switch port numbers with the associated network address

41
All the routers in the network shown in the graphic are part of the same OSPF area. All the routers were powered up simultaneously, except Router E, which was brought online the following day. Which router will be the BDR after the network has converged?
Router A
Router B
Router C
Router D
*Router E

42
Which reason is correct for having at least one true condition in an ACL?
If there is not a true statement, all packets are returned to the sender.
*The implicit "deny any" statement will deny all traffic.
True conditions only test the status of the router.
You are not required to have a true statement in ACL.

43
Which layer is responsible for organizing bits using framing?
Layer 1
*Layer 2
Layer 3
Layer 4

44
What is the purpose of the IOS enable secret command?
*to set password protection on incoming Telnet sessions
to set password protection on the console terminal
to allow a user access to User mode
to allow a user to enter a password that will be encrypted

45
What reduces the problems of routing loops due to incorrect updates?
count to infinity
distance vector timers
event-triggered updates
*split horizon

46
Which of the following is true regarding routing metrics?
All routing protocols use the same metrics.
IGRP uses bandwidth as its only metric.
*Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.
The larger metric generally represents the better path.

47
Which of the following messages are sent from a DHCP server to a client during a successful configuration process? (Choose two.)
DHCPDISCOVER
*DHCPOFFER
*DHCPREQUEST
DHCPACK

48
What are the effects of LAN segmentation using a switch? (Choose three.)
*dedicated bandwidth between source and destinations
*enlarged collision domains
decreased broadcast domains
*increased number of collision domains
increased latency in the network

49
The Cake router shown in the graphic has multiple RIP version 2 paths to the network attached to E0 of the Pie router. Which interface on the Cake router will be used to forward a packet from the 192.168.5.0 network to the 192.168.13.0 network?
E0
*E1
S0
S1
It will load balance across S0 and S1.
It will load balance across S0, S1 and E1.

50
What is true about windowing?
It always requires separate acknowledgements for each segment sent.
*It controls the amount of data that can be sent before acknowledgement is required.
It requires the sender to re-establish a connection if no acknowledgement is received.
It allows TCP/IP to measure transmitted data in segments.

51
Company XYZ has a Class B address of 135.166.0.0 and currently has 4 individual segments to subnet. The company will be adding 5 additional segments over this year and 7 additional networks the following year. What subnet mask should be used on the network in order to support the largest number of hosts per subnet?
255.255.224.0
*255.255.240.0
255.255.248.0
255.255.250.0
255.255.252.0

52
Which of the following is true regarding latency?
CSMA/CD requires no latency.
It is also called asymmetry.
It is based entirely on distance.
*Networking devices add to latency.

53
What is the length, in bits, of an Ethernet address?
12
24
32
*48
80
128

54
How many bits are in IPv6 addresses?
16
32
64
96
*128
258

55
If the above network has been configured with RIPv2, how many usable host addresses are in the 192.168.10.192 subnet?
0
*2
4
6
8

56
Which methods do frame relay switches use to inform DTEs of congestion within the frame relay network?
CCP and LMI
CIR and LATE
DLCI and SPID
*FECN and BECN

57
What is the term for the cabling that connects the customer premises equipment to the CO switch?
demarc
local loop
final mile
*DTE
trunk line

58
An administrator has an older 1900 switch located on the edge of the network. What can the network administrator do to ensure that it does not become the root bridge of the spanning-tree network?
decrease the BPDU hello timer update on the 1900
assign the highest IP address to the switch that should be the root
assign the lowest IP address to new root bridge
*assign the lowest priority to the switch that should be the root
assign the highest priority to the new root bridge
decrease the BID on the 1900 switch

59
How is the number 225 represented in binary?
11001111
11011011
11110011
*11100001

60
What is the function of the first phase of PPP negotiation?
link termination
authentication of communicating peers
*link establishment and configuration
network layer protocol configuration

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CCNA 4 - Module 6 Exam Answers

1 For which platform was UNIX first marketed commercially?
• workstations and servers
• workstations
* network servers
• large mainframe systems

2 How does RMON gather statistics on a segment?
• analyzes traps on the segment
• polls packets on the segment
* analyzes every frame on the segment
• analyzes source and destination addresses

3 Which operating systems support multiuser capability? (Choose three.)
* Linux
• Windows 98
• Windows ME
* Windows XP
* Windows 2000

4 Which statements are true regarding configuring SNMP? (Choose three.)
• It is best to use the default read-only community strings in enterprise networks.
* It is not advisable to use the default read-write community string in an enterprise network.
* More than one read-only community string is supported.
* Authorized management stations can modify MIB objects with read-write access specified.
• The maximum number of read-write strings supported is one.

5 Which statements describe the Windows 2000 operating system family? (Choose three.)
* .NET Server was designed to run enterprise level web and FTP services.
• Active Directory services run on both Windows 2000 Professional and Windows 2000 Server.
* The entire family of Windows 2000 operating systems can operate as a file, print, FTP or web server.
• Both Windows 2000 Professional and Server can support up to 256 simultaneous dialup sessions.
* .NET server was designed to compete with Linux and Unix.

6 Which of the following is a collection of software which includes a GUI interface to allow the network administrator to monitor and manage the network?
* network management application
• network management agent
• management information base
• network management protocol

7 Which command would enable logging on all supported destinations?
• Router(config)# logging 131.152.0.0
• Router(config)# logging routerA
* Router(config)# logging on
• Router(config)# logging enable

8 How does SNMPv3 address the security shortcomings of SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c?
• improved SMI features
• support for centralized and distributed management
* secure access to MIBs
• control of heterogeneous networks

9 Which means of communication does an SNMP network agent use to provide a network management station with important but unsolicited information?
• query
• broadcast
• ICMP ping
* trap
• poll

10 Which of the following describes the community strings used for SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c? (Choose two.)
* The community strings are sent using UDP.
• The read only string on most devices is set to private.
• The read/write string on most devices is set to public.
• Only the NMA needs to be configured with the community strings.
* The community strings are sent across the network in cleartext.

11

In the above illustration, which configuration commands can be used to specify the location of a managed device and the main system contacts for the device? (Choose two.)
• SanJose(config-if)# snmp-server SanJose
* Atlanta(config)# snmp-server contact JPSmith
• Atlanta(config)# snmp contact JPSmith
* SanJose(config)# snmp-server location SanJose
• Chicago#(config)# snmp chicago

12 Which features are supported by the Mac OS X system that make it a competitive choice for operating systems? (Choose four.)
* protected memory
• sixty-two bit addressing
* preemptive multitasking
• open source operating system code
* symmetric multiprocessing
* Appletalk-to-Windows network connectivity

13 An SNMPv1 agent would issue a GetResponse message to reply to which NMS requests? (Choose three.)
* GetRequest
• GetBulkRequest
* GetNextRequest
* SetRequest
• GetNextbulkRequest

14 Why are SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c community strings considered a security risk?
• SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c encapsulations are not encrypted by default.
* SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c community strings are sent as cleartext.
• SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c are limited to 32-bit counters.
• SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c uses a connectionless protocol.

15 Which of the following does SNMP use to hold information collected about the network?
• network management station
• network management database
* management information base
• database information agent

16 Which of the following are examples of network management applications? (Choose two.)
• Windows 2000 Professional
* Ciscoworks2000
* HP Openview
• Red Hat Linux
• Cisco ConfigMaker

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Cisco CCNA 4 Exam 2 answer

Cisco CCNA 4 Exam 2 answer

1 Which statement is true regarding WAN technologies?
Most WANS use only one technology throughout the infrastructure such as ISDN, Frame Relay or ATM.
Data transfer speeds on the WAN are typically faster than the speeds on a LAN.
*WANs operate at the lower three layers of the OSI model.
WANs are unable to support the transfer of voice or video traffic.

2 Which of the following are disadvantages of circuit-switched networks? (Choose two.)
Data is subject to unpredictable delays while it waits for other subscribers to transmit data.
* The connection capacity is used inefficiently due to irregular traffic bursts.
Data delivery is less reliable because only connectionless delivery methods are used.
* Circuit-switched networks are more expensive for data traffic.
Circuit-switched networks are less expensive for 24/7 data traffic.

3 A company requires a WAN connection that will carry 64 kbps and allow fast call setup time. The connection does not need to carry video. What is the best choice for this company?
ATM
ISDN BRI
X.25
* analog dialup

4 Which of the following is commonly used as Data Terminal Equipment?
ISDN
* modem
router
CSU/DSU

5 Why is it important to identify the type of traffic that will be carried on the WAN links before choosing a WAN technology?
to determine the routing protocol to be used on the WAN link
to determine the WAN topology
* to determine the requirements for latency and jitter
to determine the type of signaling protocol to be used on the WAN link

6 On which of the following are most Layer 2 WAN encapsulations based?
IP
PPP
* HDLC
SLIP
HSSI
CSU

7 Which term describes the cabling that connects the customer site to the nearest exchange of the WAN service provider?
CPE
CO
* local loop
DCE
DTE

8 A European company needs a low cost, dialup WAN connection to validate transactions for point-of-sale card readers. Which connection type is commonly used for this situation?
ATM
* X.25
Frame Relay
Leased lines

9 Which of the following describes a packet-switched network using connection-oriented data transfer? (Choose two.)
* Each packet carries an identifier.
Each packet carries full addressing information.
Each switch in the route must evaluate the addressing information to determine where to send the packet.
* Each switch determines where to send the packet by examining tables in memory.
The addressing information is used to set switches along the route of data transfer to create a continuous copper circuit.

10 A large company already has a T1 leased line but this connection is inadequate at peak business hours. Furthermore, they would like a backup WAN connection in case their leased line temporarily fails. What type of WAN connection is commonly used in this situation?
X.25
DSL
* ISDN
cable modem
56 kbps

11 Depending on the company size and geographical layout, there might be many end points on the company WAN. Why is it important to identify all the end points of the WAN before choosing a WAN design?
to determine the routing protocol to be used on the WAN link
* to determine the WAN topology
to determine the requirements for latency and jitter
to determine the signaling protocol to be used on the WAN link

12 A new international company needs to have a design for WAN connectivity. The company will have at least five offices in every state in the United States and Mexico. Some states will have as many as 20 offices. The branch offices will require constant contact with the services of the main office. Which design model is best for WAN connectivity in this situation?
a mesh network of all branch WANs
a simple star topology connecting all branch LANs to a central router with multiple interfaces
a one layer design using Frame Relay links between LANs
* a three layer hierarchical topology interconnecting branch LANs within an area, the area LANs within a region, and connecting the regions to form the core of the WAN

13 Which statements are correct regarding ATM connections? (Choose two.)
uses only PVCs
* is useful for video transfers
* has data rates beyond 155 Mbps
cells have 32 byte payload and a 5 byte overhead
mandates single virtual circuits on a single leased line connection

14 Which of the following is true of WANs?
Shared network WAN technologies such as Frame Relay and ATM are more expensive but offer less latency and jitter than dedicated lines.
ISDN is suitable for large enterprises.
* The more network devices that data has to pass through across the WAN, the more latency and less reliability the network will experience.
WANs typically incorporate only one technology such as ISDN, Frame Relay, or ATM.

15 Which of the following connections will provide the equivalent of a T1/E1 connection and is intended for large businesses?
BRI
* PRI
DLCI
PSTN
POTS

16 A company only requires a WAN connection to transfer sales data from individual stores to the home office. All transfers will occur after business hours. They estimate they will never need a connection faster than 56 kbps. Which type of connection is best for this company?
ATM
ISDN
* analog dialup
T1 Leased Line

17 Which of the statements regarding DSL are correct? (Choose three.)
DSL provides a consistent bandwidth of 2.154 Mbps.
DSL connections provide a fast dialup to establish a WAN connection.
* DSL connects the local loop to a digital subscriber line access multiplexer.
* DSL bandwidth varies and can exceed the bandwidth of a T1/E1 leased line.
* For DSL to function properly, the local loop must be less than 5.5 kilometers (3.5 miles).
DSL is a popular choice for enterprises that need to connect home users to the local network due to strong security.

Cisco CCNA 4 Exam 3 answer

Cisco CCNA 4 Exam 3 answer

1 Which of the following describe functions of the Point-to-Point protocol with regards to the OSI model? (Choose three.)
PPP uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices.
PPP operates at all layers of the OSI model.
*PPP uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression. ¡Ì
*PPP provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols. ¡Ì
PPP uses Network Control Protocols (NCP) to test and maintain connectivity between devices.
*PPP can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces. ¡Ì

2 What can be concluded from the output shown in the graphic? (Choose three.)
A two-way handshake is occuring.
*The LCPs were already negotiated. ¡Ì
*The router can begin NCP negotiations. ¡Ì
The debug ppp negotiation command was executed.
*The debug ppp authentication command was executed. ¡Ì

3 Which command specifies a link quality over a PPP link?
ppp link 50
ppp link quality 60
ppp percentage 80
*ppp quality 90 ¡Ì

4 Refer to the output of the show interface Serial0/0 command in the graphic. How many NCPs have been established?
1
*2
3
4

5 Which authentication protocol can be spoofed to allow playback attacks?
MD5
CHAP
*PAP
NCP

6 Which of the following is an advantage of using time-division multiplexing (TDM) for transmitting data? (Choose two.)
It allows a single source to transmit over multiple data channels.
*Multiple sources can transmit over a single channel. ¡Ì
*Original data streams must be reconstructed at the destination. ¡Ì
TDM relies on Layer 3 protocols to operate.

7 Several tasks must occur before a link between two routers can pass data using PPP. Which of the following are required to establish and maintain a PPP session between two routers?
configure each host with a PPP address
configure authentication between the two routers
* send LCP and NCP frames to negotiate configuration parameters ¡Ì
send hostname and password information between the two routers

8 Which of the following is a reason for using such protocols as PAP and CHAP?
to establish a PPP session
to provide error checking on a WAN link
* to restrict access to networks connected by serial and ISDN links
to provide a backup hostname and privilege mode password on the router

9 PPP uses several protocols for communication. Which of the following are options that the LCP protocol in the PPP architecture can provide? (Choose two.)
* testing the quality of the link
routing packets between devices
assigning individual station addresses
configuring network layer protocols
* negotiating authentication options

10 How is the MD5 function valuable in authentication? (Choose two.)
* uses a one-way hash function
authentication occurs more rapidly
* challenges are unique
the remote router assumes control of frequency of challenge
the remote router assumes control of timing of challenge

11 A technician has used Telnet to gain remote access to a router that has no connectivity on its serial interface. Which command should be issued to determine if the serial cable is connected properly?
* show controllers
show processes
show run
show status

12 Which advantage does the multilink option provide when using PPP?
* Data transmission has load balancing possibilities.
Interfaces can be configured using both HDLC and PPP.
More than one authentication method can be used.
More than one compression protocol can be configured.

13 Which of the following describes the CHAP protocol? (Choose three.)
* exchanges a random challenge number during the session to verfiy identity
sends authentication password to verify identity
*prevents transmission of login information in plain text
*disconnects the PPP session if authentication fails
initiates a two-way handshake

14 How did Cisco alter the HDLC encapsulation to allow a single link to carry multiple protocols?
split the transmissions into multiple channels each carrying a single protocol
identified the protocol in the FCS field
compressed the datagrams differently for each protocol
* added a type field to identify the protocol

15 A technician is testing the functionality of a recently installed router. The technician is unable to ping the serial interface of a remote router. The technician executes the show interface serial 0/0 command on the local router and receives the following output:
Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down(disabled)
What are possible causes for this command output? (Choose two.)

interface missing the no shutdown command
clockrate command missing
*CSU/DSU failed
*interface shutdown due to high error rate
cable missing

16 Which command was used to display the partial output shown in the graphic?
show ppp traffic
show lcp traffic
* debug ppp negotiation
debug ppp authentication

17 Which of the following describes the High-Level Data Link Control protocol? (Choose three.)
* HDLC provides flow and error control.
Standard HDLC supports multiple protocols on a single link.
* HDLC uses sequencing and acknowledgements.
HDLC is defined as the default encapsulation on Cisco LAN interfaces.
* Cisco implemented a proprietary version of HDLC.

18 A two router network is running PPP over the serial interfaces that connect them. The enable password on the Denim router is "gateway". The Denim router also has a locally configured authentication password for the Plaid router which is "fortress". Which command must be executed on the Plaid router to allow Denim to authenticate to the Plaid router using CHAP?
Plaid(config)# enable secret gateway
Plaid(config)# enable secret fortress
Plaid(config)# username Plaid password fortress
* Plaid(config)# username Denim password fortress
Plaid(config)# hostname Plaid secret password gateway
Plaid(config)# hostname Plaid secret password fortress

19 ISDN BRI service uses two B channels to send data, voice, and video. If the first channel becomes saturated, the second channel can be configured to forward packets. Which command will allow ISDN to load balance across both links?
Router(config-if)# ppp quality 2
Router(config-if)# ip variance
Router(config-if)# ip maximum-paths 2
* Router(config-if)# ppp multilink

20 When troubleshooting the Serial 0/0 interface of a router, a technician issues the show controllers command. The following was the output of the command:
Interface is Serial0/0, electrical interface is UNKNOWN.
What can be concluded about the Serial 0/0 interface? (Choose three.)

* Serial0/0 is down, line protocol is down
Serial0/0 is down, line protocol is up
Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down
The interface is neither DCE or DTE.
* The interface hardware may be faulty.
* The cabling may be improperly connected.

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Cisco CCNA 4 Exam 3 answer

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Cisco CCNA 4 Exam 4 answer

Cisco CCNA 4 Exam 4 answer

1 Which of the following are true of ISDN routers configured with dialer profiles? (Choose two.)
They do not use ACL to define interesting traffic.
* Their B channels can be configured with different subnets and encapsulation types.
* Their BRI interfaces can belong to multiple dialer pools.
They use PPP only.
They can only use the CHAP authentication protocol.

2 Which of the following describes the use of a SPID? (Choose two.)
selects the ISDN switch type
* identifies the line configuration of the BRI service
* allows multiple ISDN devices to share the local loop
designates whether a device is a TE1 or TE2
allows ISDN broadcasts

3 What is a reason why static routes are preferred over dynamic routes for DDR to operate on an ISDN interface?

An ISDN interface will not allow dynamic routing updates that use broadcast technology.
A dynamic route will take precedence over a static route because of its lower administrative distance.
Dynamic routing can never be considered interesting traffic by default.
Dialer-list configuration does not support dynamic routing.
* Dynamic routes may cause the ISDN connection to dial constantly to transmit updates.

4 What must be configured for an ISDN PRI connection? (Choose three.)
* ISDN switch type
Service Profile Identifier (SPID)
Dial-on-Demand Routing (DDR)
* PRI group time slot
* T1/E1 controller, framing type and line coding

5 You have just taken delivery of a new US standard Cisco 2620 router that includes a BRI "U" interface? Which of the following describes how this router will be connected in the ISDN network?
An external terminal adapter (TA) must be attached to the router for connectivity.
An NT1 must be connected to the router for connectivity.
* The router is a TE1 device and is ready to connect to the provider's network.
The router is a TE2 device and requires both a TA and NT1 for connectivity.

6 A network administrator is troubleshooting an ISDN connectivity problem. Users are complaining they cannot connect to the Internet. The network administrator suspects the ISDN connection attempt is timing out before a connection can be established. What command would the network administrator use to determine what the "wait for carrier" timeout value is set to?
show isdn status
show isdn active
* show dialer
show interfaces bri0/0
debug isdn q931
show ISDN interfaces

7 Which command configures an ISDN interface to use a switch type which is different from that used on other interfaces on the router?
Router(config)#switch-type switch-type
Router(config-if)#switch-type switch-type
Router(config)#isdn switch-type switch-type
* Router(config-if)#isdn switch-type switch-type

8 Which of the following protocols can be used to encapsulate data traffic sent from a router BRI interface? (Choose two.)

Link Access Protocol - Data
* High-Level Data Link Control
Logical Link Control
Serial Data Link Control
* Point to Point protocol
Binary Synchronous Control protocol

9 A small company uses an ISDN WAN link to transfer e-mail to remote sites. What command would the administrator use to determine if the ISDN link is up?
* show isdn status
show isdn active
show dialer
show interface bri0/0
debug isdn active

10 Why must routers be configured to specify the ISDN switch type?
* Switches use various implementations of Q.931.
The IOS of most routers lacks the ability to autosense the switch.
The switch must know what type of router it is communicating with.
The Layer 3 connection between the terminal equipment and the ISDN switch is not standardized.

11 Which of the following is considered out-of-band signaling?
using a frequency outside of the rated bandwidth for transmission
transmitting data over a control channel
* using a separate channel for control signals
transmitting control signals over a data channel

12 Which of the following is essential for all ISDN BRI interface configurations?
* ISDN switch type
line encoding technique
line framing method
local directory number
service profile identifier

13 Which router command would be used to enter the mode for configuring a T1 PRI connection?
* Router(config)# controller t1 {slot/port}
Router(config)# interface pri t1 {slot/port}
Router(config)# interface pri {slot/port} t1
Router(config)# controller {slot/port} t1

14 Which of the following correctly describes ISDN BRI? (Choose three.)
* two 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
* B channel is suitable for voice data
uses in-band signaling
* uses out-of-band signaling
offers the equivalent of a T1/E1 connection
twenty-three 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel

15 The network administrator of XYZ company needs to configure a new ISDN router. After entering the commands shown in the graphic, the administrator tries to access the Internet but the ISDN connection does not open. If the service provider verifies that the problem is with XYZ's configuration, what is a possible cause of the problem?
The dialer map is configured incorrectly.
The encapsulation type is configured incorrectly.
* The dialer group is configured incorrectly.
The ACL is configured incorrectly.
The isdn switch-type command needs to be configured globally.

16 A network administrator is troubleshooting ISDN connectivity. The administrator suspects the problem lies with the authentication protocol. What command should the administrator use to view the authentication process between the router and the ISDN switch?
debug pap authentication
debug chap authentication
* debug ppp authentication
debug isdn authentication

17 A network administrator in Europe has been asked to provide the network with an ISDN WAN link. The router available to provide the WAN connection is a non-modular Cisco router with an S/T interface. What further equipment will be provided by the ISP for the ISDN connection?
Nothing. The router is already suitable.
BRI WAN interface card to install in the router
* an external NT1 to terminate the local loop
a TA/NT1 device to install on the router

18 Which command is used within an existing ISDN network to display current call information, including the called number?
show isdn status
* show isdn active
show interfaces bri0/0
show ip interfaces

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Cisco CCNA 4 Exam 5 answer

Cisco CCNA 4 Exam 5 answer

1 Why are SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c community strings considered a security risk?
SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c encapsulations are not encrypted by default.
* SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c community strings are sent as cleartext.
SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c are limited to 32-bit counters.
SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c uses a connectionless protocol.

2 Which statements are true regarding configuring SNMP? (Choose three.)
It is best to use the default read-only community strings in enterprise networks.
* It is not advisable to use the default read-write community string in an enterprise network.
* More than one read-only community string is supported.
* Authorized management stations can modify MIB objects with read-write access specified.
The maximum number of read-write strings supported is one.

3 Which of the following is a collection of software which includes a GUI interface to allow the network administrator to monitor and manage the network?
* network management application
network management agent
management information base
network management protocol

4 Which of the following does SNMP use to hold information collected about the network?
network management station
network management database
* management information base
database information agent

5 Which type of information does SNMP collect about a router? (Choose three.)
routing table entries
* number of certain types of error messages received
* number of bytes in and out of a device
* status of network interfaces going up and down
number of protocols running on workstations

6 Which operating systems support multiuser capability? (Choose three.)
* Linux
Windows 98
Windows ME
* Windows XP
* Windows 2000

7 Which means of communication does an SNMP network agent use to provide a network management station with important but unsolicited information?
query
broadcast
ICMP ping
* trap
poll

8 How does RMON gather statistics on a segment?
analyzes traps on the segment
polls packets on the segment
* analyzes every frame on the segment
analyzes source and destination addresses

9 Which of the following are examples of network management applications? (Choose two.)
Windows 2000 Professional
* Ciscoworks2000
* HP Openview
Red Hat Linux
Cisco ConfigMaker

10 In the above illustration, which configuration commands can be used to specify the location of a managed device and the main system contacts for the device? (Choose two.)
SanJose(config-if)# snmp-server SanJose
* Atlanta(config)# snmp-server contact JPSmith
Atlanta(config)# snmp contact JPSmith
* SanJose(config)# snmp-server location SanJose
Chicago#(config)# snmp chicago

11 For which platform was UNIX first marketed commercially?
workstations and servers
workstations
* network servers
large mainframe systems

12 How does SNMPv3 address the security shortcomings of SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c?
improved SMI features
support for centralized and distributed management
* secure access to MIBs
control of heterogeneous networks

13 Which statements describe the Windows 2000 operating system family? (Choose three.)
* .NET Server was designed to run enterprise level web and FTP services.
Active Directory services run on both Windows 2000 Professional and Windows 2000 Server.
* The entire family of Windows 2000 operating systems can operate as a file, print, FTP or web server.
Both Windows 2000 Professional and Server can support up to 256 simultaneous dialup sessions.
* .NET server was designed to compete with Linux and Unix.

14 An SNMPv1 agent would issue a GetResponse message to reply to which NMS requests? (Choose three.)
* GetRequest
GetBulkRequest
* GetNextRequest
* SetRequest
GetNextbulkRequest

15 Which of the following describes the community strings used for SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c? (Choose two.)
* The community strings are sent using UDP.
The read only string on most devices is set to private.
The read/write string on most devices is set to public.
Only the NMA needs to be configured with the community strings.
* The community strings are sent across the network in cleartext.

16 Which features are supported by the Mac OS X system that make it a competitive choice for operating systems? (Choose four.)
* protected memory
sixty-two bit addressing
* preemptive multitasking
open source operating system code
* symmetric multiprocessing
* Appletalk-to-Windows network connectivity

17 Which command would enable logging on all supported destinations?
Router(config)# logging 131.152.0.0
Router(config)# logging routerA
* Router(config)# logging on
Router(config)# logging enable

Cisco CCNA 4 Exam 6 answer

Cisco CCNA 4 Exam 6 answer

1 Why are SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c community strings considered a security risk?
SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c encapsulations are not encrypted by default.
* SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c community strings are sent as cleartext.
SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c are limited to 32-bit counters.
SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c uses a connectionless protocol.

2 Which statements are true regarding configuring SNMP? (Choose three.)
It is best to use the default read-only community strings in enterprise networks.
* It is not advisable to use the default read-write community string in an enterprise network.
* More than one read-only community string is supported.
* Authorized management stations can modify MIB objects with read-write access specified.
The maximum number of read-write strings supported is one.

3 Which of the following is a collection of software which includes a GUI interface to allow the network administrator to monitor and manage the network?
* network management application
network management agent
management information base
network management protocol

4 Which of the following does SNMP use to hold information collected about the network?
network management station
network management database
* management information base
database information agent

5 Which type of information does SNMP collect about a router? (Choose three.)
routing table entries
* number of certain types of error messages received
* number of bytes in and out of a device
* status of network interfaces going up and down
number of protocols running on workstations

6 Which operating systems support multiuser capability? (Choose three.)
* Linux
Windows 98
Windows ME
* Windows XP
* Windows 2000

7 Which means of communication does an SNMP network agent use to provide a network management station with important but unsolicited information?
query
broadcast
ICMP ping
* trap
poll

8 How does RMON gather statistics on a segment?
analyzes traps on the segment
polls packets on the segment
* analyzes every frame on the segment
analyzes source and destination addresses

9 Which of the following are examples of network management applications? (Choose two.)
Windows 2000 Professional
* Ciscoworks2000
* HP Openview
Red Hat Linux
Cisco ConfigMaker

10 In the above illustration, which configuration commands can be used to specify the location of a managed device and the main system contacts for the device? (Choose two.)
SanJose(config-if)# snmp-server SanJose
* Atlanta(config)# snmp-server contact JPSmith
Atlanta(config)# snmp contact JPSmith
* SanJose(config)# snmp-server location SanJose
Chicago#(config)# snmp chicago

11 For which platform was UNIX first marketed commercially?
workstations and servers
workstations
* network servers
large mainframe systems

12 How does SNMPv3 address the security shortcomings of SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c?
improved SMI features
support for centralized and distributed management
* secure access to MIBs
control of heterogeneous networks

13 Which statements describe the Windows 2000 operating system family? (Choose three.)
* .NET Server was designed to run enterprise level web and FTP services.
Active Directory services run on both Windows 2000 Professional and Windows 2000 Server.
* The entire family of Windows 2000 operating systems can operate as a file, print, FTP or web server.
Both Windows 2000 Professional and Server can support up to 256 simultaneous dialup sessions.
* .NET server was designed to compete with Linux and Unix.

14 An SNMPv1 agent would issue a GetResponse message to reply to which NMS requests? (Choose three.)
* GetRequest
GetBulkRequest
* GetNextRequest
* SetRequest
GetNextbulkRequest

15 Which of the following describes the community strings used for SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c? (Choose two.)
* The community strings are sent using UDP.
The read only string on most devices is set to private.
The read/write string on most devices is set to public.
Only the NMA needs to be configured with the community strings.
* The community strings are sent across the network in cleartext.

16 Which features are supported by the Mac OS X system that make it a competitive choice for operating systems? (Choose four.)
* protected memory
sixty-two bit addressing
* preemptive multitasking
open source operating system code
* symmetric multiprocessing
* Appletalk-to-Windows network connectivity

17 Which command would enable logging on all supported destinations?
Router(config)# logging 131.152.0.0
Router(config)# logging routerA
* Router(config)# logging on
Router(config)# logging enable

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Cisco CCNA 4 Final Exam answer

Cisco CCNA 4 Final Exam answer

1. Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN?
A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
A modem terminates an analog local loop.
A router is commonly considered a DTE device.

2. What value in the address field of a Frame Relay header identifies the destination of the frame?
DLCI

3. The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue explains why the link is unable to establish a PPP session?
The usernames are misconfigured.

4. The output of the show interfaces serial 0/0 command for a frame-relay connection indicates that the serial line is up but the line protocol is down. What are possible causes for this? (Choose two.) (2 / 5)
There is an LMI-type mismatch between the Frame Relay switch and the router.
The cable is disconnected.

5. Which statements are correct about the point in the network where the responsibility of the service provider ends?
The International point is on the customer side of the network terminating unit(NTU).
The United States point is at the interface of the customer-provided equipment and the local loop.
The point is called the demarcation point.

6. While prototyping an internetwork in the corporate lab, a network administrator is testing a serial link between serial 0/0 interfaces on two routers. The labels on the serial cable ends have been damaged and are unreadable. What command can be issued to determine which router is connected to the DCE cable end?
show controllers serial 0/0

7. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?
The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.

8. A technician enters the interface serial 0/0.1 multipoint command when configuring a router. What effect will the multipoint keyword have in this configuration?
Split-horizon issues will need to be resolved for this network if RIP is the routing protocol.
All the participating interfaces of remote routers will be configured in the same subnet.

9. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, when should a static Frame Relay map be used?
when the remote router does not support Inverse ARP
when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled

10. Which router command would be used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3 address in the internetwork in the diagram?
RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 192.168.15.2 100 broadcast

11. Which of the following ISDN protocols is responsible for call setup and call teardown?
ITU-T Q.921

12. What are two ways to resolve split-horizon issues in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.) (2 / 5)
create a full-mesh topology
use point-to-point subinterfaces

13. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco 806 broadband router?
defines which addresses are allowed into the router

14. A system administrator is unable to ping the Serial0/0 interface of RouterB from RouterA. During the troubleshooting process, the following facts are established: (0 / 5)
- IP addressing and subnet masks are correct.
- RouterA is a Cisco router and RouterB is a router from another vendor.
- RouterA is configured with the default encapsulation.
- The serial interfaces on both routers are up.
- The protocol is down on the serial interfaces of both routers.

15. What should the administrator do to solve the problem?
Change the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.

16. An ISDN circuit from a branch office is remaining connected to the regional office. A network administrator determines a user has initiated a continuous ping from a desktop computer to the regional office. Which configuration change would allow the ISDN circuit to disconnect during any attempts to ping, while otherwise functioning properly?
change the dialer list to exclude ICMP as interesting

17. - call is made (1 / 6)
3,2,1,4

18. Which protocol should be chosen to support WAN connectivity in a multi-vendor system and provide strong security through authentication?
PPP with CHAP

19. Which of the following are valid steps for a basic ISDN BRI configuration?
set the SPIDs if required by the ISDN switch

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