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Showing posts with label CCNA 4 - Module 6 Exam Answers. Show all posts
Showing posts with label CCNA 4 - Module 6 Exam Answers. Show all posts

CCNA 1 version 4 CHAPTER 1

1 What is the main storage drive used by servers, desktops, and laptops?

tape drive

*hard drive

optical drive (DVD)

floppy disk drive

2 Which adapter card enables a computer system to exchange information with other systems on a local network?

modem card

controller card

video card

sound card

*network interface card

3 What is the purpose of the ASCII code?

translates bits into bytes

interprets graphics digitally

translates digital computer language into binary language

*represents letters, characters, and numbers with bits

4 What two functions does a UPS provide that a surge protector does not ? (Choose two.)

*protects the computer from voltage surges

provides backup power from an internal battery

protects the computer from sudden voltage spikes

gives the user time to phone the electrical company

*gives the user time to safely shut down the computer if the power fails

provides backup power through a generator provided by the wall outlet

5 If a peripheral device is not functioning, what are three things you should do to solve the problem? (Choose three.)

*Use the testing functionality on the peripheral itself, if available.

*Verify that all cables are connected properly.

Disconnect all cables connected to the computer except those connected to the peripheral.

*Ensure that the peripheral is powered on.

Disconnect the peripheral and verify that the computer is operating normally.

Reload the computer operating system.

6 How many values are possible using a single binary digit?

1

*2

4

8

9

16

7 Which computer component is considered the nerve center of the computer system and is responsible for processing all of the data within the machine?

RAM

*CPU

video card

sound card

operating system

8 What are two benefits of hooking up a laptop to a docking station? (Choose two.)

Mobility is increased.

*An external monitor can be used.

*Alternate connectivity options may be available.

The keyboard can be changed to a QWERTY-style keyboard.

More wireless security options are available.

9 In newer operating systems, how are system resources assigned by default when components are installed?

manually assigned by the operating system

manually assigned by the administrator

statically assigned by the component to a preset resource

*dynamically assigned between the component and the operating system

10 Which two steps should be performed when installing a peripheral device? (Choose two.)

*Download and install the most current driver.

Connect the peripheral using any cable and any available port on the computer.

*Connect the peripheral using an appropriate cable or wireless connection.

Test the peripheral on another machine before installing it on the one where it will be used.

Check the computer documentation to see if the peripheral vendor is compatible with the PC vendor.

11 Why do servers often contain duplicate or redundant parts?

Servers require more power and thus require more components.

*Servers should be accessible at all times.

Servers can be designed as standalone towers or rack mounted.

Servers are required by networking standards to have duplicate parts.

12 What are two examples of output peripheral devices? (Choose two.)

*printer

*speakers

flash drive

external DVD

external modem

13 Which three terms describe different types of computers? (Choose three.)

operating system

network

*laptop

*desktop

Windows

*mainframe

14 A user plans to run multiple applications simultaneously on a computer. Which computer component is essential to accomplish this?

*RAM

NIC

video card

sound card

storage device

15 How is a server different from a workstation computer?

The server works as a standalone computer.

*The server provides services to clients.

The workstation has fewer applications installed.

The workstation has more users who attach to it.

X16 What are two advantages of purchasing a preassembled computer? (Choose two.)

*usually a lower cost

exact components may be specified

extended waiting period for assembly

*adequate for performing most general applications

suited for customers with special needs

17 What is a word processor?

It is a physical computer component.

*It is a program designed to perform a specific function.

It is a program that controls the computer resources.

It is a functional part of an operating system.

18 What can be used to prevent electrostatic discharge (ESD)?

dry and non humid conditions

carpeted floor

*grounding strap

uncluttered work space

19 Which component is designed to remove high-voltage spikes and surges from a power line so that they do not damage a computer system?

CPU

*surge suppressor

motherboard

hard drive

X1 20 What measurement is commonly associated with computer processing speed?

bits

pixels

*hertz

bytes

21 Applications can be grouped into general use software or industry specific software. What are two examples of industry specific software? (Choose two.)

CAD

*presentation

spreadsheet

word processing

*medical practice management

contacts/scheduling management

1 Administrators at a multi-campus college need access to their schedules wherever they go. Which computing device would be the most appropriate?

*PDA

laptop

desktop

tablet PC

cell phone

mainframe

17Because of the potentially dangerous voltage levels, which two devices should you not open unless you have been specifically trained to work on them? (Choose two.)

mouse

*printer

monitor

keyboard

hard drive

*power supply

19What characteristic of word processing software would make it a local application?

The application is shared between users.

The software is stored on the local hard drive.

The software is accessible through a web page.

*The software has the ability to manipulate text and graphics.
»»  read more

CCNA Discovery 4.0 Curriculum

(I) Networking for Home and Small Businesses

1. Personal Computer Hardware
2. Operating Systems
3. Connecting to the Network
4. Connecting to the Internet Through an ISP
5. Network Addressing
6. Network Services
7. Wireless Technologies
8. Basic Security
9. Troubleshooting Your Network
10. Course Summary

(II) Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP

1. The Internet and Its Uses
2. Help Desk
3. Planning a Network Upgrade
4. Planning the Addressing Structure
5. Configuring Network Devices
6. Routing
7. ISP Services
8. ISP Responsibility
9. Course Summary

(III) Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise

1. Networking in the Enterprise
2. Exploring the Enterprise Network Infrastructure
3. Switching in an Enterprise Network
4. Addressing in an Enterprise Network
5. Routing with a Distance Vector Protocol
6. Routing with a Link-State Protocol
7. Implementing Enterprise WAN Links
8. Filtering Traffic Using Access Control Lists
9. Troubleshooting an Enterprise Network
10. Course Summary

(IV) Designing and Supporting Computer Networks

1. Introducing Network Design Concepts
2. Gathering Network Requirements
3. Characterizing the Existing Network
4. Estimating Application Impacts on Network Design
5. Creating the Network Design
6. IP Addressing in the Network Design
7. Prototyping the Campus Network
8. Prototyping the WAN
9 Preparing the Proposal
10. Course Summary
»»  read more

CCNA 4 - Module 6 Exam Answers

1 For which platform was UNIX first marketed commercially?
• workstations and servers
• workstations
* network servers
• large mainframe systems

2 How does RMON gather statistics on a segment?
• analyzes traps on the segment
• polls packets on the segment
* analyzes every frame on the segment
• analyzes source and destination addresses

3 Which operating systems support multiuser capability? (Choose three.)
* Linux
• Windows 98
• Windows ME
* Windows XP
* Windows 2000

4 Which statements are true regarding configuring SNMP? (Choose three.)
• It is best to use the default read-only community strings in enterprise networks.
* It is not advisable to use the default read-write community string in an enterprise network.
* More than one read-only community string is supported.
* Authorized management stations can modify MIB objects with read-write access specified.
• The maximum number of read-write strings supported is one.

5 Which statements describe the Windows 2000 operating system family? (Choose three.)
* .NET Server was designed to run enterprise level web and FTP services.
• Active Directory services run on both Windows 2000 Professional and Windows 2000 Server.
* The entire family of Windows 2000 operating systems can operate as a file, print, FTP or web server.
• Both Windows 2000 Professional and Server can support up to 256 simultaneous dialup sessions.
* .NET server was designed to compete with Linux and Unix.

6 Which of the following is a collection of software which includes a GUI interface to allow the network administrator to monitor and manage the network?
* network management application
• network management agent
• management information base
• network management protocol

7 Which command would enable logging on all supported destinations?
• Router(config)# logging 131.152.0.0
• Router(config)# logging routerA
* Router(config)# logging on
• Router(config)# logging enable

8 How does SNMPv3 address the security shortcomings of SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c?
• improved SMI features
• support for centralized and distributed management
* secure access to MIBs
• control of heterogeneous networks

9 Which means of communication does an SNMP network agent use to provide a network management station with important but unsolicited information?
• query
• broadcast
• ICMP ping
* trap
• poll

10 Which of the following describes the community strings used for SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c? (Choose two.)
* The community strings are sent using UDP.
• The read only string on most devices is set to private.
• The read/write string on most devices is set to public.
• Only the NMA needs to be configured with the community strings.
* The community strings are sent across the network in cleartext.

11

In the above illustration, which configuration commands can be used to specify the location of a managed device and the main system contacts for the device? (Choose two.)
• SanJose(config-if)# snmp-server SanJose
* Atlanta(config)# snmp-server contact JPSmith
• Atlanta(config)# snmp contact JPSmith
* SanJose(config)# snmp-server location SanJose
• Chicago#(config)# snmp chicago

12 Which features are supported by the Mac OS X system that make it a competitive choice for operating systems? (Choose four.)
* protected memory
• sixty-two bit addressing
* preemptive multitasking
• open source operating system code
* symmetric multiprocessing
* Appletalk-to-Windows network connectivity

13 An SNMPv1 agent would issue a GetResponse message to reply to which NMS requests? (Choose three.)
* GetRequest
• GetBulkRequest
* GetNextRequest
* SetRequest
• GetNextbulkRequest

14 Why are SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c community strings considered a security risk?
• SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c encapsulations are not encrypted by default.
* SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c community strings are sent as cleartext.
• SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c are limited to 32-bit counters.
• SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c uses a connectionless protocol.

15 Which of the following does SNMP use to hold information collected about the network?
• network management station
• network management database
* management information base
• database information agent

16 Which of the following are examples of network management applications? (Choose two.)
• Windows 2000 Professional
* Ciscoworks2000
* HP Openview
• Red Hat Linux
• Cisco ConfigMaker

»»  read more

CCNA 1- Module 11 Exam Answers

1 .Which port numbers are commonly assigned for FTP use? (Choose two.)
• 19
• 20
• 21

• 22

2 Which application layer protocol allows network devices to exchange management information?
• SMTP
• SNMP
• FTP
• TFTP
• EIGRP

3 FTP provides a reliable, connection-oriented service for transferring of files. Which transport layer protocol is used for data transfer when this service is being used?
• TFTP
• TCP
• DNS
• IP
• UDP

4 TCP is referred to as connection-oriented. What does this mean?
• TCP uses only LAN connections.
• TCP requires devices to be directly connected.
• TCP negotiates a session for data transfer between hosts.
• TCP reassembles the data steams in the order that it is received.

5 What three pieces of information does the transport layer use to manage the communication of separate data streams between hosts? (Choose three.)
• port numbers
• checksum values
• authentication keys
• sequence numbers
• encryption algorithms
• acknowledgment numbers

6 What does the http portion of the URL http://www.cisco.com/edu/ communicate to a web browser?
• The web browser needs to locate the www server.
• The address is located on a site whose name is http.
• The web browser is notified as to which protocol to use.
• The http portion represents the type of web browser that needs to be used.

7 When the receiving workstation detects an error in the data it has received, it does not acknowledge receipt of the data. The source workstation retransmits the unacknowledged data. Which layer of the OSI model supports this process of retransmission?
• network
• application
• session
• transport

8 What are the features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP). (Choose three.)
• no guaranteed delivery of datagrams
• connection-oriented
• provides reliable full-duplex data transmission
• reliability provided by the application layer
• connectionless

• utilizes sliding windowing techniques

9 Which Application layer protocol is widely used to support resolving host names to IP addresses?
• FTP
• SMTP
• SNMP
• DNS
• HTTP
• WWW

10 What is the purpose of TCP/UDP port numbers?
• indicate the beginning of a three-way handshake
• reassemble the segments into the correct order
• identify the number of data packets that may be sent without acknowledgment
• track different conversations crossing the network at the same time

11 If an application uses a protocol that exchanges data without using windowing or flow control and must rely on higher layer protocols for reliability, which protocol and transfer methods are being used?
• UDP, connection-oriented
• UDP, connectionless
• TCP, connection-oriented
• TCP, connectionless

12 Which protocol is used to transfer files from computer to computer but is considered connectionless?
• FTP
• TFTP
• SNMP
• TCP
• DHCP

13 Which layer of the OSI model can provide a connection-oriented, reliable data transfer between two hosts?
• Application
• Presentation
• Session
• Transport

14 Which of the following are primary duties of the OSI transport layer? (Choose two.)
• path determination
• end-to-end connectivity
• flow control

• security control
• data representation
• encryption of data

15 Which protocol is used by e-mail servers to communicate with each other?
• FTP
• HTTP
• TFTP
• SMTP
• POP
SNMP


»»  read more

CCNA 2 - Module 1 Exam

1. Which of the following descriptions are true regarding the management connections on a Cisco router? (Choose three.)
• They are non-network connections.
• They are used to connect the router to the rest of the production network.
• They are synchronous serial ports.
• They are used for initial router configuration.
• They are asynchronous serial ports.
• They are accessed using their assigned IP address.

2. The console port can be used for which of the following? (Choose three.)
• debugging
• password recovery
• routing data between networks
• troubleshooting
• connecting one router to another

3. Which of the following describes the function of a WAN?
• connects peripherals in a single location
• connects multiple networks in a single building
• provides connectivity on a LAN
• provides connectivity over a large geographic area

4. An internetwork must include which of the following? (Choose three.)
• switching
• static addressing
• IETF standardization
• dynamic or static routing
• consistent end-to-end addressing

5. ABC Company just purchased three new routers to start their company network. Which items are needed to establish a terminal session between a PC and the router for the initial configuration? (Choose three.)
• straight-through cable
• terminal emulation software
• rollover cable
• RJ-45 to DB-9 connector
• V.35 cable

6.

Terminal emulation software, such as HyperTerminal, can be used to configure a router. Which of the following HyperTerminal options shown in the graphic are correctly set to allow configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose three.)
• bits per second
• data bits
• parity
• stop bits
• flow control

7. Which of the following devices are used in the construction of a WAN? (Choose three.)
• hubs
• routers
• communication servers

• transceivers
• modems
• multi-port repeaters

8. Which of the following are functions of RAM? (Choose three.)
• contains startup configuration file
• stores routing table
• holds fast switching cache

• retains contents when power is removed
• stores running configuration file

9. Why is a console connection to a router or switch preferred when troubleshooting? (Choose two.)
• can be accessed remotely
• does not depend on network services
• displays startup and error messages by default

• does not require special components

10. Which basic components do a router and a standard desktop PC have in common? (Choose three.)
• CPU
• hard drive
• input/output interfaces
• keyboard
• monitor
• system bus

11. During the initial configuration of a 2600 series Cisco router, which cable is required for connecting a PC to the console port?
• twisted
• crossover
• rollover
• straight

12. A router is composed of many internal components. Which of the following components stores a copy of the router's configuration file?
• metal-oxide memory
• read only memory
• flash memory
• non-volatile random access memory

13. What contains the instructions that a router uses to control the flow of traffic through its interfaces?
• packet configuration
• configuration files
• flash memory
• internal components

14. Several Ethernet hosts on a LAN need the gateway services of a Cisco 2500 series router. Which of the following would be needed to physically connect a router to all of the hosts on the LAN? (Choose two.)
• a crossover cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch
• crossover cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN
• a straight-through cable between the auxiliary port on a router and a switch
• a rollover cable between the console port on a router and a switch
• straight-through cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN
• a straight-through cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch


15. Which router component holds the configuration file when power is lost?
• volatile random access memory
• read only memory
• non-volatile random access memory
• flash memory

16. Which of the following layers of the OSI model are incorporated in WAN standards? (Choose two.)
• physical layer
• application layer
• transport layer
• data link layer
• session layer

17. Which of the following are true regarding router interfaces? (Choose three.)
• provide temporary memory for the router configuration files
• connect the router to the network for packet entry and exit
• can be on the motherboard or a separate module

• hold the IOS image
• connect the router to LANs and WANs

18. Which of the following tasks can be accomplished through a management connection on a router? (Choose three.)
• troubleshooting problems
• monitoring the system

• capturing LAN data packets
• configuring the router
• routing data packets

19. What do routers use to select the best path for outgoing data packets?
• ARP tables
• bridging tables
• routing tables
• switching tables

20. Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)
• stores the routing table
• retains contents when power is removed
• stores the startup configuration file

• contains the running configuration file
• stores the ARP table

21. Select the statements that correctly describe flash memory in a 2600 series router? (Choose two.)
• holds the startup configuration by default
• can be upgraded with single in-line memory modules
• stores Cisco IOS software images

• stores routing table information by default
• maintains the only copy of an IOS image after the router is booted


»»  read more

CCNA 2 - Module 2 Exam

1. Cisco IOS software is separated into two levels as a security feature. What are those two levels? (Choose two.)
• global
• privileged
• local
• user
• interface

2. When the router output is being viewed through a terminal program, which statements are true regarding the --More-- prompt at the bottom of the router display? (Choose two.)
• Press the Spacebar to display the next line.
• Press the Spacebar to view the next screen.
• Press the PgDn key to view the next screen.
• Press the Enter key to display the next line.
• Press the Enter key to view the next screen.

3. Which command takes precedence if the commands enable password and enable secret are both configured on a router?
• enable password
• enable secret
• Neither. They are both enabled.
• Neither. They cancel each other out.

4. What baud rate needs to be configured on terminal emulation software to allow a connection to the console port of a router?
• 2400
• 4800
• 9600
• 14200
• 38400

5. What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from the output of the show version command? (Choose three.)
• the last restart method
• the command buffer contents
• the amount of NVRAM and FLASH used
• the configuration register settings
• the location from where the IOS loaded


6. Which keystroke is used to move to the beginning of a command line?
• Ctrl-A
• Ctrl-B
• Esc-A
• Esc-B
• Ctrl-C
• Ctrl-Z

7. What does the command sh? return as output if issued at the Router# prompt?
• all show commands allowed in privileged mode
• all commands beginning with the letters sh
• an incomplete command error message
• an invalid command error message

8. Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)
• View a list of commands entered in a previous session.
• Recall up to 15 command lines by default.
• Set the command history buffer size.
• Recall previously entered commands.

• Save command lines in a log file for future reference.

9. What information does the name of the IOS file provide to the network administrator? (Choose three.)
• the amount of NVRAM required to run the image
• he hardware platform the image runs on
• the various software platforms the image can run on
• special features and capabilities of the image
• the bandwidth supported by the IOS
• where the image executes from and if it has been compressed

10. Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?
• load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration
• load bootstrap, apply configuration, load IOS
• load IOS, load bootstrap, apply configuration, check hardware
• check hardware, apply configuration, load bootstrap, load IOS

11. Which tasks can be performed in the ROM monitor mode? (Choose two.)
• recover from system failures
• create startup configuration files
• recover from lost passwords
• configure IP addresses on all router interfaces
• perform high level diagnostics

12. Which of the following statements concerning router interface modes are correct? (Choose three.)
User EXEC mode provides commands to monitor router operation.
• Privileged EXEC mode only provides commands to change or configure router operation.
• Password protected configuration modes can be accessed from either user EXEC or privileged EXEC modes.
• On a router with the name Core1, the prompt indicating privileged EXEC mode is Core1#.
• The command to enter privileged EXEC mode is Router# enable.
• A username and password may be required to enter privileged EXEC mode.

13. Under what conditions does the router enter setup mode? (Choose three.)
• immediately after issuing the command Router#erase start
• after issuing the command Router#setup
• during the initial configuration of a router
• after deleting the backup configuration and reloading the router

• after deleting the running configuration

14. A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible?
• console
• AUX
• Telnet
• modem

15. After the active IOS image has been loaded into RAM from flash memory, which commands could be used to display the file name of the active IOS? (Choose two.
• Router# show IOS
• Router# show flash
• Router# show nvram
• Router# show version
• Router# show startup-config
• Router# show running-config

16. What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?
• NVRAM, FLASH, ROM
• FLASH, TFTP,CONSOLE
• NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE
• FLASH, TFTP, ROM

17. Which connection method can be used to perform the initial configuration of a router?
• use a serial connection of a computer connected to the console port of a router
• telnet to the router through a serial port
• use a vty port through the Ethernet interface
• use a modem connected to the AUX port of the router

18. Which keystrokes can be used to return to the privileged mode from the interface configuration mode?
• Ctrl-P
• Ctrl-Shift-6, then X
• Ctrl-Z
• Esc

19.

Which of the following identifies the correct items needed to initially configure a router?
• 1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port
2) a straight through cable
3) the router's console port

• 1) PC's Ethernet port
2) a crossover cable
3) the router's Ethernet port

• 1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port
2) a rollover cable
3) the router's Ethernet port

• 1) PC's Ethernet port
2) a rollover cable
3) the router's console port

• 1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port
2) a rollover cable
3) the router's console port


• 1) PC's Ethernet port
2) a rollover cable
3) the router's Ethernet port

»»  read more

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