Your Ad Here

Showing posts with label CISCO CCNA 3. Show all posts
Showing posts with label CISCO CCNA 3. Show all posts

CISCO CCNA 3- PRACTICE FINAL

1
If EIGRP routing is employed and the successor route to a destination becomes unreachable or unreliable, which of the following would be used as a replacement?
the route flagged as active in the topology table
*the feasible successor route in the topology table
the default gateway in the neighbor table
the primary designated route in the topology table
the backup designated router in the routing table

2
Which VLAN implementation method requires less administration in the wiring closet and can provide notification if an unauthorized user attempts to connect to the network?
port-centric
static
*dynamic
geographic

3
What does the router shown in the graphic provide to the network? (Choose three.)
*forwarding of packets between VLANs
forwarding of broadcast frames between VLANs
*improved efficiency in bandwidth utilization
*connectivity of local hosts with remote resources
elimination of VLAN configuration errors
prevention of switching loops

4
Which of the following are layers in the hierarchical design model? (Choose three.)
gateway
*access
*distribution
network
*core
domain


5
What is required for OSPF routers to share routing information?
designated routers
a backup designated router
*neighbor adjacencies
an NBMA network topology
links configured on the 224.0.0.0 network

6
Which of the following statements describe trunking? (Choose two.)
*Trunking bundles multiple virtual links over one physical link.
Trunking decreases the number of switch ports available for hosts.
Trunking complicates the physical interconnection of switches in the wiring closet.
*Trunks can be configured to carry traffic for several VLANs between switches.
Trunking requires one switch port for each configured VLAN.

7
The network 192.1.1.0 has been subnetted for a network design. The 192.1.1.16/28 subnet has been chosen for further subnetting to provide for point-to-point serial link addressing. How many serial link subnets can be created while minimizing the number of wasted addresses?
1
2
*4
6
8
16

8
The spanning tree election process has taken place on a network containing five bridges. How many total root bridges have been elected?
*1
3
5
one per trunk port

9
In which STP state does a switch port only receive BPDUs?
*blocking
learning
disabled
listening
forwarding

10
Which command is used to copy a backup configuration file from a server to the non-volatile memory of a switch?
Switch# copy startup-config tftp
*Switch# copy tftp startup-config
Switch# copy NVRAM tftp
Switch# copy tftp NVRAM
Switch# copy tftp flash

11
Which of the switches shown in the graphic will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
*Cat-A
Cat-B
Cat-C
Cat-D

12
Under which of the following circumstances might two routers have trouble establishing a neighbor relationship in an OSPF network? (Choose three.)
*Hello packets are not sent from either neighbor.
*The interfaces are on different network types.
The network command has put the connected interfaces into the same OSPF area.
Slow network connections cause OSPF advertisements to time out.
*Authentication passwords or keys are different.

13
Which of the following are characteristics of link-state routing protocols? (Choose three.)
*collection of routing information from within a defined area of the network
*view of network from neighbor's perspective
*independent calculation of best paths to all destinations
propagation of incorrect information minimized
demonstration of universal compatibility and simplicity

14
What is the minimum amount of bandwidth that Layer 2 LAN switches should provide to servers?
1 Mbps
10 Mbps
*100 Mbps
1000 Mbps
1 Gbps

15
A new color laser printer has been configured on the Marketing VLAN. Users on the Sales VLAN would also like to have access to this printer. What must be done in order for the Sales department users to be able to access this device?
A root bridge must be elected to allow the traffic to cross.
A bridge must be configured with a compatible bridging protocol.
*A router must be installed and configured to connect the VLANs.
No traffic should be allowed to pass between VLANs.
The print server must be configured to accept connections over VTP.

16
Which of the following is the metric that OSPF uses to determine the best route to a destination network?
administrative distance
*cost
hop count
link delay

17
What is required for full-duplex Ethernet transmissions?
one pair of conductors in the cable and a switched connection between each node
two pairs of conductors in the cable and a switched connection between each node
*two pairs of conductors in the cable and a non-switched connection between each node
four pairs of conductors in the cable and a non-switched connection between each node

18
What affects network availability? (Choose three.)
location
*throughput
user proficiency
*response time
workstation speed
*access to resources

19
How does an Ethernet switch improve network performance? (Choose three.)
*allows multiple frames to be forwarded simultaneously
decreases the number of broadcast domains
increases network latency
eliminates unnecessary broadcast frames
*reduces the size of collision domains
*increases the number of collision domains

20
Which type of address does OSPF use to initiate new adjacencies and to ensure that neighbor routers are functioning?
broadcast
loopback
*multicast
unicast

21
What problems can occur on a redundant switched network? (Choose three.)
*A destination device may receive a frame more than once.
*The switch may learn an incorrect MAC address-to-port mapping.
*Broadcast storms may make the network appear down.
A frame may be dropped before reaching its destination.
The network may not converge.

22
A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to most efficiently provide for the number of host addresses required by Router C, while wasting the fewest addresses?
/31
/30
/29
/28
/27
*/26

23
When the mode LED on a Cisco switch is set to STAT, what port status is indicated by a green flashing port LED?
no link
port is not forwarding
*port is sending or receiving data
port is sending, but not receiving
link fault


24
How many collision domains will there be in the entire network shown in the graphic if Hub1 is replaced with a Layer 2 switch?
2
3
*4
7
8
10

25
Which of the following are performed by a switch port that is in the forwarding state in an STP network? (Choose three.)
discarding data traffic
*receiving data traffic
*forwarding data traffic
recalculating BPDUs
*receiving BPDUs
blocking BPDUs

26
Which of the following are considered limitations of RIP v1? (Choose three.)
*It does not support authentication.
It sends updates as broadcasts on 255.255.255.255.
*It does not send subnet mask information in its updates.
It is not widely supported in multivendor routing environments.
*It does not support equal-cost load balancing.

27
What will be the result of OSPF DR/BDR elections in the network shown in the diagram? (Choose three.)
*R1 will be the DR for the 10.1.1.0/24 network.
*R1 will be the DR for the 10.1.2.0/24 network.
*R1 will be the DR for the 10.1.3.0/24 network.
R2 will be the DR for the 10.1.1.0/24 network.
R3 will be the DR for the 10.1.2.0/24 network.
R4 will be the DR for the 10.1.3.0/24 network.

28
An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the graphic?
*forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3
add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table
forward the frame out Interface3
discard the frame
forward the frame out all interfaces
forward the frame out Interface2

29
A redundant switched topology is being installed in an enterprise. Which of the following should be configured to ensure that this network operates efficiently?
TTL
*STP
BID
BPDU
ARP

30
How can MAC address table entries be removed from a switch? (Choose two.)
*Power cycle the switch to clear all dynamically learned addresses.
The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries.
*The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries.
The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries.
Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.

31
What is the term that describes the cabling between the MDF and IDF locations as shown in the graphic?
horizontal cross-connect
horizontal cross-cabling
*vertical cross-connect
vertical cross-cabling

32
An entire workgroup has lost network connectivity. After shutting down and restarting the workgroup switch in the wiring closet, it is observed that the switch system LED is amber. What should be done?
The switch should be reconfigured.
*The switch should be replaced in order to restore connectivity to the workgroup.
The switch should be allowed to complete POST before its configuration is checked.
The switch has returned to service, however its configuration should be checked.


33
Which of the following statements about link-state advertisements are correct? (Choose three.)
LSAs are sent to neighboring routers on a regular basis.
LSAs are used by a router to determine if a neighboring router is online.
*LSAs are multicast to all routers in the area.
*LSAs contain the topological database of the sending router.
Routers use LSAs to learn about the topology of the entire network.
*LSAs are sent when the router detects a topology change.

34
A switch that was previously attached to another VTP management domain is added to an existing VTP domain. VLAN information on all the other switches in the existing VTP management domain is lost. Why did this happen?
Adding the new switch caused spanning tree protocol to recalculate the network and erase the existing VLAN configurations.
The new switch BID was higher than the existing VTP server, causing the new switch to broadcast incorrect VLAN information to the domain.
*The new switch had a higher VTP configuration revision number than the other switches in the domain and erased the VLAN information on the VTP server and VTP clients.
The new switch exceeded the maximum number of switches permitted in a management domain.
The switch advertised VTP version 2 information to the network, causing the existing VLAN data to be overwritten.

35
Refer to the topology and link path costs shown in the graphic. What is the total cost of the path that OSPF will use between the Data_Center router and the BldgA router?
2
11
*12
65
66

36
Which LAN design requirement addresses user-to user and user-to-application connectivity?
adaptability
manageability
scalability
*functionality

37
A router is configured to connect to a trunked uplink as shown in the graphic. A packet is received on the FastEthernet 0/1 physical interface from VLAN 1. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?
The router will ignore the packet because the source and destination are on the same broadcast domain.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
*The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.

38
Which of the following are features of the distribution layer? (Choose three.)
VLAN routing
MAC layer filtering
*security
microsegmentation
*packet filtering with access control lists
*workgroup access


39
The LAN devices are configured as shown in the diagram. Why are Host1 and Host2 unable to communicate? (Choose three.)
*A router is required to forward traffic between the hosts.
*The switch ports are on different VLANs.
The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN.
The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.
*The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet.
The hosts are configured on different logical networks.

40
While deleting the VLANs from a switch, a network administrator receives the following message, "A default VLAN may not be deleted". What did the administrator do to cause this message to be displayed?
The no vlan all command was entered.
The no switchport mode access command was not properly entered.
*The no vlan 1 command was entered.
The no vlan command was entered in database configuration mode.
The no default vlan command was entered.
The administrator attempted to delete a VLAN that still has switch ports assigned to it.


41
Which of the following statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)
VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
*All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.
Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled.
*All interfaces are set to auto.
Enable password is configured as cisco.
*The flash directory contains the IOS image.

42
What is indicated when an EIGRP route is in the passive state?
The route has the highest path cost of all routes to that destination network.
The route must be confirmed by neighboring routers before it is put in the active state.
The route is a feasible successor and will be used if the active route fails.
There is no activity on the route to that network.
*The route is viable and can be used to forward traffic.

43
Which of the following are characteristics of a router-on-a-stick design for inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.)
*multiple logical router interfaces
multiple physical router interfaces
*one logical router interface
one physical router interface
*multiple logical networks defined for each VLAN
one logical network defined for each VLAN

44
Which of the following tables does DUAL use to calculate the lowest cost routes to each destination?
routing table and topology table
neighbor table and routing table
*neighbor table and topology table
neighbor table and adjacency table

45
Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure a router interface to serve the newly added network 192.168.10.64/27 and to advertise this network over RIP v2? (Choose three.)
*Configure RIP v2 with the network command and the IP network number for the new network.
Configure RIP v2 with the network command and the IP host address and subnet mask for the newly activated interface.
Configure the router with the ip subnet-zero command so that this network can be added and advertised.
*Apply a network host address and subnet mask to the newly activated interface.
*Activate the routing protocol with the router rip version 2 command.
Configure RIP on the other routers in the enterprise with an entry for the newly added network.

46
Using Telnet, a network administrator is unable to log in to a switch located at another office in order to make configuration changes to it. What could be the problem?
The managmement station does not have access to a full-duplex Fast Ethernet link on the switch.
*VLAN 1 on the switch is not configured for TCP/IP network access.
The switch must be managed from the local LAN.
The switch hostname has not been set.

47
The routers in the diagram are configured for RIP v2 on network 1.0.0.0. Additional static routes are configured as shown in the graphic. What will RA do with a packet it receives on interface 1.1.1.1 that is destined for host 2.2.1.1 on a remote network?
buffer it until it learns a route to 2.2.0.0
forward it to 1.1.1.2
forward it to 1.1.2.2
*forward it to 1.1.3.2
forward it to 2.1.1.2
drop the packet

48
Which strategies can a company take to enhance network reliability through redundancy? (Choose two.)
*Eliminate single points of failure.
Flood frames for unknown destinations.
Send multiple frames to an end device.
*Design alternate routes to a destination.
Forward MAC address tables to all switches on the network.
Eliminate multiple paths to the same destination.


49
Which interior routing protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.)
*OSPF
RIP v1
*RIP v2
*EIGRP
BGP
IGRP

50
Router XYZ is to be added to OSPF area 0. Which of the following is the correct syntax for enabling OSPF on this router?
XYZ(config)# router ospf
*XYZ(config)# router ospf 0
XYZ(config)# router ospf 10
XYZ(config)# router ospf process 0
XYZ(config)# router ospf process 10
XYZ(config)# router ospf processid 10

51
Users are complaining that resources housed on a remote network have become unavailable. Which command can the administrator use to check whether this destination network is known to the local router?
*router# show ip route
router# show route
router# show ip rip
router# show rip
router# show protocol

52
What is the purpose of a default route?
A default route will cause packets addressed to unknown destination networks to be dropped.
*A default route will cause packets addressed to unknown destination networks to be sent to a designated router interface.
A default route will cause packets addressed to known destinations to prefer a specified path to the destination network.
A default route will direct packets for all destination networks to a designated router and router interface.

53
Refer to the graphic. Which point must be reached before a bridge will forward a frame?
A
B
C
D
E
*F

54
The 192.168.10.0/27 network is to be further subnetted with a /30 mask. Assuming that ip subnet-zero is enabled, what are the first two addresses in the first resulting subnet that can be used for point-to-point links?
*192.168.10.1
*192.168.10.2
192.168.10.33
192.168.10.34
192.168.10.193
192.168.10.194

55
Which distribution layer devices enhance Layer 2 switching with Layer 3 functionality? (Choose two.)
multilayer routers
*multilayer switches
bridges
managed hubs
VLANs
*a switch with a router module

56
What do switches configured with VLANs provide to an enterprise network? (Choose three.)
bridging between VLANs
*security
*broadcast control
physical grouping of users
*logical grouping of users
enlargement of collison domains

57
A switched Ethernet network is experiencing unusually heavy traffic to the extent that network delays have become intolerable. While investigating the problem, a network administrator disconnects a redundant uplink between two switches. The excessive traffic quickly subsides. What was the likely cause of this problem?
*broadcast storms
routing loops
multiple frame copies
load balancing
unicast frame forwarding

58
Which Ethernet device has the highest latency factor?
transceiver
hub
MAU
*router
switch

59
How do EIGRP routers actively maintain neighbor relationships?
They dynamically learn new routes.
They continously monitor the status of their own ports.
They exchange their entire neighbor tables with directly attached routers.
*They exchange hello packets with their neighbors every five seconds, by default.
They compare known routes to received updates.

60
Which of the following statements regarding server placement are correct? (Choose two.)
*Enterprise servers should be located in the MDF.
Enterprise servers should be located in an IDF.
Workgroup servers should be located in the MDF.
*Workgroup servers should be located in an IDF.
Both workgroup and enterprise servers should be located in the MDF.
Both workgroup and enterprise servers should be located in an IDF.

61
How are RIP v1 and RIP v2 similar to one another? (Choose three.)
*They both use hop count as a metric.
*They both have the same metric value for infinite distance.
They both broadcast their updates to their neighbors.
They both send subnet mask information in their updates.
They both provide for authentication of update sources.
*They both use split horizon to prevent routing loops.

62
Which algorithm does EIGRP use to calculate routes?
PDM
RTP
*DUAL
LSA
postamble();


Download CISCO CCNA 3- PRACTICE FINAL

»»  read more

CISCO CCNA 3 - Module 1 Exam Answers

Take Assessment - Module 1 Exam - CCNA 3 Switching Basics and Intermediate Routing (Version 3.1)

1 Which of the following are contained in the routing updates of classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• 32-bit address
• next hop router interface
• subnet mask
• unicast host address
• Layer 2 address

2

Router1 and Router2 shown in the topology have been configured with the no ip subnet-zero command. Which of the following valid VLSM network numbers could be used for the serial link between Router1 and Router2? (Choose two.)
• 192.168.1.0/30
• 192.168.1.4/30
• 192.168.1.8/30
• 192.168.1.96/30
• 192.168.1.138/30
• 192.168.1.190/30

3 What is the purpose of the network command used in the configuration of the RIP routing protocol?
• It specifies RIP v2 as the routing protocol.
• It enables the use of VLSM.
• It specifies the fastest path to the destination route.
• It specifies which interfaces will exchange RIP routing updates.
• It activates RIP for all routes that exist within the enterprise network.

4 Which of the following is considered a limitation of RIP v1?
• RIP v1 does not send subnet mask information in its updates.
• RIP v1 is not widely supported by networking hardware vendors.
• RIP v1 consumes excessive bandwidth by multicasting routing updates using a Class D address.
• RIP v1 requires enhanced router processors and extra RAM to function effectively.
• RIP v1 does not support load balancing across equal-cost paths.
• RIP v1 authentication is complicated and time-consuming to configure.

5 Which command would a network administrator use to determine if the routers in an enterprise have learned about a newly added network?
• router# show ip address
• router# show ip route
• router# show ip networks
• router# show ip interface brief
• router# debug ip protocol
• router# debug rip update

6 How does a router know of paths to destination networks? (Choose two.)
• inspection of the destination IP address in data packets
• ARP requests from connected routers
• manual configuration of routes
• updates from other routers

• DHCP information broadcasts
• updates from the SMTP management information base

7 Which of the following statements are true regarding RIP v1 and v2? (Choose three.)
• Both RIP versions use hop count.
• Both RIP versions can provide authentication of update sources.
• Both RIP versions use 16 hops as a metric for infinite distance.
• RIP v1 uses split horizon to prevent routing loops while RIP v2 does not.
• RIP v1 uses hold-down times to prevent routing loops while RIP v2 does not.
• RIP v1 broadcasts routing table updates, while RIP v2 multicasts its updates.

8 What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?
• utilize one subnet mask throughout an autonomous system
• utilize multiple subnet masks in the same IP address space
• utilize IGRP as the routing protocol in an entire autonomous system
• utilize multiple routing protocols within an autonomous system

9

The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology?
• The address assigned to the Ethernet0 interface of Router1 is a broadcast address for that subnetwork.
• The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.
• The subnetwork assigned to the Serial0 interface of Router1 is on a different subnetwork from the address for Serial0 of Router2.
• The subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.

10

Refer to the network shown. How will Router1 summarize and advertise the four networks attached to its Ethernet ports?
• 172.16.16.0/20
• 172.16.19.0/20
• 172.16.16.0/20 and 172.16.19.0/20
• 172.16.16.0/22
• 172.16.18.0/24
• 172.16.0.0/24

11

A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to provide for the number of host addresses required on Router A, while wasting the fewest addresses?
• /31
• /30
• /29
• /28
• /27
• /26

12

The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?
• 192.1.1.0/26 and 192.1.1.64/27
• 192.1.1.128/25
• 192.1.1.0/23 and 192.1.1.64/23
• 192.1.1.0/24
• 192.1.1.0/25
• 192.1.1.0/24 and 192.1.1.64/24

13 A new network is to be configured on a router. Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure this interface and implement dynamic IP routing for the new network? (Choose three.)
• Select the routing protocol to be configured.
• Assign an IP address and subnet mask to the interface.
• Update the ip host configuration information with the device name and new interface IP address.
• Configure the routing protocol with the new network IP address.
• Configure the routing protocol with the new interface IP address and subnet mask.
• Configure the routing protocol in use on all other enterprise routers with the new network information.

14 What is the default network mask for a Class B address?
• 255.0.0.0
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.255

15 How often does RIP v1 send routing table updates, by default?
• every 30 seconds
• every 45 seconds
• every 60 seconds
• every 90 seconds

16

An additional subnet is required for a new Ethernet link between Router1 and Router2 as shown in the diagram. Which of the following subnet addresses can be configured in this network to provide a maximum of 14 useable addresses for this link while wasting the fewest addresses?
• 192.1.1.16/26
• 192.1.1.96/28
• 192.1.1.160/28
• 192.1.1.196/27
• 192.1.1.224/28
• 192.1.1.240/28

17 Which subnet mask is represented by the /21 notation?
• 255.255.224.0
• 255.255.248.0
• 255.255.252.0
• 255.255.240.0

18 Which of the following problems does VLSM help to alleviate?
• the shortage of IP addresses
• the difficulty of assigning static IP addresses to hosts in large enterprises
• the complexity of implementing advanced routing protocols such as OSPF and EIGRP
• the shortage of network administrators qualified in the use of RIP v1 and IGRP

19

In the network shown in the graphic, three bits were borrowed from the host portion of a Class C address. How many valid host addresses will be unused on the three point-to-point links combined if VLSM is not used?
• 3
• 4
• 12
• 36
• 84
• 180

20 A Class C network address has been subnetted into eight subnetworks. Using VLSM, the last subnet will be divided into eight smaller subnetworks. What bit mask must be used to create eight smaller subnetworks, each having two usable host addresses?
• /26
• /27
• /28
• /29
• /30
• /31

»»  read more

CISCO CCNA 3 - Module 3 Exam Answers

Take Assessment - Module 3 Exam - CCNA 3 Switching Basics and Intermediate Routing (Version 3.1)

1 Which Layer 4 protocol does EIGRP use to provide reliability for the transmission of routing information?
• DUAL
• IP
• PDM
• RTP
• TCP
• UDP

2 Which of the following statements describes the bounded updates used by EIGRP?
• Bounded updates are sent to all routers within an autonomous system.
• Partial updates are sent only to routers that need the information.
• The updates are sent to all routers in the routing table.
• Updates are bounded by the routers in the topology table.

3 What is the EIGRP term for a backup route?
• backup route
• default route
• feasible successor route
• gateway
• secondary route
• successor route

4 Why would it be necessary to configure the bandwidth setting on an EIGRP interface rather than leaving it at the default setting? (Choose two.)
• A suboptimal route may be chosen as the best path to a destination if the bandwidth setting is higher than the actual bandwidth of the link.
• The network may be unable to converge if the bandwidth setting does not match the actual bandwidth of the link.

• Routing updates might arrive too fast for the interface to handle and be discarded because of buffer overflow.
• The configured bandwidth must match the actual speed of the link so the link will operate properly.
• Setting the bandwidth to a higher rate will optimize the effective throughput of the link.

5 If an EIGRP route goes down and a feasible successor is not found in the topology table, how does DUAL flag the route that has failed?
• recomputed
• passive
• active
• down
• unreachable
• successor

6 What tables does EIGRP maintain for each routed protocol it supports? (Choose three.)
• adjacency table
• topology table
• neighbor table
• routing table

• link state table
• ARP table

7 In which of the following tables does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm store the primary route to a destination? (Choose two.)
• routing
• topology

• neighbor
• path
• shortest path

8 Which of the following are found in the EIGRP neighbor table? (Choose two.)
• routes installed by DUAL
• lowest calculated metric to each destination
• network layer address of the neighbor routers
• number of EIGRP packets waiting to be sent

• feasible distance to each neighbor

9 Which of the following router commands is recommended only for troubleshooting specific types of network problems, not for monitoring normal network operation?
• show
• list
• debug
• terminal monitor

10 Which EIGRP command is used to view all routes that are known by the router?
• show ip eigrp interfaces detail
• show ip eigrp traffic
• show ip eigrp neighbors
• show ip eigrp topology all-links

11 What is the default administrative distance of EIGRP internal routes?
• 70
• 90
• 100
• 110
• 120
• 255

12 What is the advantage of routers forming adjacencies when using EIGRP? (Choose three.)
• Neighbor routers can quickly take over for a router that is in passive mode.
• New routers and their routes can quickly be discovered by neighbor routers.
• A router can share routing loads with neighbor routers.
• A router can quickly discover when a neighbor router is no longer available.
• Changes in network topology can quickly be shared with neighbor routers.

• Neighbor routers can save overhead by sharing their DUAL databases.

13 Which of the following types of routes will be denoted by EX in EIGRP routing table entries? (Choose two.)
• routes learned from other routing protocols
• routes learned from any non-adjacent EIGRP routers
• any route with a hop count metric higher than 224
• EIGRP routes that originate in different autonomous systems
• all passive routes in the routing table

14 Which command will help identify established OSPF neighbor adjacencies?
• router# show ospf neighbor
• router# debug neighbor events
• router# debug ip ospf neighbor
• router# show ip ospf neighbor

15 Which command will display only the current EIGRP routing table entries?
• Router# show ip route
• Router# show ip route eigrp
• Router# show eigrp route
• Router# show eigrp protocol

16

Host 192.168.1.66 in the network illustrated is unable to ping host 192.168.1.130. How must EIGRP be configured to enable connectivity between the two hosts? (Choose two.)
• R1(config-router)# network 192.168.1.128
• R1(config-router)# auto-summary
• R1(config-router)# no auto-summary
• R2(config-router)# no auto-summary

• R2(config-router)# auto-summary
• R2(config-router)# network 192.168.1.64

17 What information is maintained in the EIGRP topology database for a destination route? (Choose three.)
• the routing protocol
• the feasible distance of the route

• the highest cost of the route
• the SRTT value for the route
• the route cost as advertised by the neighboring router
• the physical address of the gateway interface
»»  read more

CISCO CCNA 3 - Module 2 Exam Answers

Take Assessment - Module 2 Exam - CCNA 3 Switching Basics and Intermediate Routing (Version 3.1)

1 What does OSPF use to calculate the cost to a destination network?
• bandwidth
• bandwidth and hop count
• bandwidth and reliability
• bandwidth, load, and reliablity

2 Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)
• OSPF interval timers mismatch
• gateway of last resort not redistributed
• interface network type mismatch
• no loopback interface configured
• administrative distance mismatch
• inconsistent authentication configuration

3 Which router is the root of an SPF tree?
• border router
• nearest neighboring router
• local router
• trunk router, as determined by the SPF algorithm

4 In which types of networks are OSPF DR elections necessary? (Choose two.)
• point-to-point
• point-to-multipoint
• broadcast multiaccess
• nonbroadcast multiaccess

5

What will be the result of the DR and BDR elections for this single area OSPF network? (Choose three.)
• HQ will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.
• Router A will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.
• HQ will be BDR for 10.4.0.0/16.
• Router A will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.
• Remote will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.
• Remote will be BDR for 10.5.0.0/16.

6

Refer to the network shown in the diagram. Which command sequence on RouterB will redistribute a Gateway of Last Resort to the other routers in OSPF area 0?
• RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# gateway-of-last-resort 172.16.6.6
• RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0
• RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# default-information originate

• RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# default network 172.16.6.6 0.0.0.3 area 0
• RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
• RouterB(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# redistribute ip default-route

7 Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?
• Each router builds a simple view of the network based on hop count.
• Routers flood the network with LSAs to discover routing loops.
• Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.
• Routers use hold-down timers to prevent routing loops.

8 What information can be obtained from the output of the show ip ospf interface command? (Choose three.)
• link-state age intervals
• timer intervals
• router ID number

• link-state update intervals
• neighbor adjacencies

9

RouterA, RouterB, and RouterC in the diagram are running OSPF on their Ethernet interfaces. Loopback interfaces (Lo 0) are configured as shown. What happens when RouterD is added to the network?
• RouterB takes over as DR and RouterD becomes the BDR.
• RouterD becomes the BDR and RouterA remains the DR.
• RouterD becomes the DR and RouterA becomes the BDR.
• RouterC acts as the DR until the election process is complete.
• RouterD becomes the DR and RouterB remains the BDR.
• There is no change in the DR or BDR until either current DR or BDR goes down.

10 What are the benefits of the hierarchical design approach that is used in large OSPF networks? (Choose three.)
• reduction of routing overhead
• increased routing overhead
• faster convergence
• slower convergence
• distribution of network instability to all areas of the network
• isolation of network instability to one area of the network

11

Which command sequence will enable OSPF in the backbone area for the two Ethernet links on RouterA?
• RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.4.0 0.0.1.255 area 1
• RouterA(config)# router ospf 10
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

• RouterA(config)# router ospf 10
RouterA(config-router)# area 0 network 172.16.4.0 0.0.1.255
• RouterA(config)# router ospf 0
RouterA(config-route)# network 172.16.4.0 0.0.255.255 area 0
• RouterA(config)# router ospf 0
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.4.0 255.255.255.0
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.5.0 255.255.255.0
• RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.4.0 255.255.254.0 area 0

12 Which of the following are disadvantages of link-state routing? (Choose three.)
• Link-state protocols require careful network design.
• Link-state protocols are prone to routing loops.
• Link-state hello updates can cause broadcast flooding.
• Link-state protocols place significant demands on router processors and memory resources.
• Link-state protocols require a knowledgeable network administrator.

• Link-state protocols do not support Variable Length Subnet Masking.

13 What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?
• updates triggered by network changes
• updates sent at regular intervals
• updates sent only to directly connected neighbors
• updates that include complete routing tables

14 Because of security concerns, a network administrator wants to set up authentication between two routers. Which of the following commands will configure Router_A to trust Router_B with a clear text password of apollo?
• Router_A(config-if)# ospf authentication-key apollo
• Router_A(config-if)# ip authentication-key apollo
• Router_A(config-if)# ip ospf authentication apollo
• Router_A(config-if)# ip ospf authentication-key apollo

15 How can the OSPF cost for a link be established? (Choose two.)
• It is set to 1544 by default for all OSPF interfaces.
• It can be set with the ip ospf cost command.
• The configured loopback addresses map to link costs.
• It is calculated proportionally to observed throughput capacity of the router.
• It may be calculated using the formula 108/bandwidth.

16 A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area?
• Router_A(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
• Router_B(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
• Router_A(config-router)# default-information originate
• Router_B(config-router)# default-information originate
• Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default
• Router_B(config-router)# ip ospf update-default

17

The routers in the diagram are configured as shown. The loopback interface on router R1 is labeled as lo0. All OSPF priorities are set to the default except for Ethernet0 of router R2, which has an OSPF priority of 2. What will be the result of the OSPF DR/BDR elections on the 192.1.1.0 network? (Choose two.)
• R1 will be the DR
• R1 will be the BDR
• R2 will be the DR
• R2 will be the BDR
• R3 will be the DR
• R3 will be the BDR

18 Which router command will display the interface priority value and other key information for the OSPF configuration of the serial 0 interface?
• router# show ospf serial 0
• router# show interface serial 0 OSPF
• router# show ip interface serial 0
• router# show ip ospf interface serial 0

19 Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? (Choose three.)
• network address
• loopback address
• autonomous system number
• subnet mask
• wildcard mask
• area ID

20 What does OSPF use to reduce the number of exchanges of routing information in networks where large numbers of neighbors are present? (Choose two.)
• root router
• backup root router
• domain router
• backup domain router
• designated router
• backup designated router

»»  read more

CISCO CCNA 3 - Module 4 Exam Answers

Take Assessment - Module 4 Exam - CCNA 3 Switching Basics and Intermediate Routing (Version 3.1)

1 Which statements are true concerning the shared memory buffering used by an Ethernet switch? (Choose two.)
• Frames are processed through a single queue.
• All frames are placed in a common memory buffer.

• Frames are placed in a queue for the destination port.
• A port with a full memory buffer can cause frames for available ports to be delayed.
• Each switch port is statically assigned a buffer of equal size.

2 What are the functions of routers? (Choose three.)
• improving network performance by increasing latency by twenty to thirty percent
• segmenting broadcast domains
• forwarding packets based on destination network layer addresses
• segmenting collision domains

• forwarding packets as soon as the destination MAC address is read
• developing routing table entries based on source IP addresses

3 What are the functions of a Layer 2 Ethernet switch? (Choose three.)
• preventing broadcasts
• increasing available bandwidth per user
• decreasing the size of collision domains
• isolating traffic among segments

• routing traffic between different networks
• decreasing the number of broadcast domains

4 Why does a switch have higher throughput compared to a bridge?
• Switching occurs in software.
• Switching occurs in hardware.
• Switches create multiple broadcast domains.
• Switches segment LANs.

5 Why would a network administrator segment a network with a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)
• to create fewer collision domains
• to enhance user bandwidth
• to create more broadcast domains
• to eliminate virtual circuits
• to isolate traffic between segments
• to isolate ARP request messages from the rest of the network

6

Refer to the graphic. Which point must be reached before a frame is forwarded when the switch is using store-and-forward mode?
• A
• B
• C
• D
• E
• F

7 Hubs are concerned with which PDU?
• bits
• frames
• packets
• datagrams

8 Which statements are true regarding hubs? (Choose three.)
• Hubs operate at Layer 1 of the OSI model.
• They create separate collision domains.
• Signals are distributed through all ports.
• Layer 2 addresses are used to make decisions.
• They calculate the CRC for each frame received prior to forwarding.
• Bandwidth is shared among all connected users.

9 Which device provides segmentation within a single network?
• hub
• server
• switch
• transceiver

10 Which of the following is a Layer 2 broadcast address?
• 0.0.0.0
• 255.255.255.255
• 11:11:11:11
• FF:FF:FF:FF
• FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF

11

Refer to the graphic. Which point in the frame must be reached before it is forwarded by a switch that is using fast-forward mode?
• A
• B
• C
• D
• E
• F

12 Which switching mode changes to store-and-forward mode after it detects a given number of errors?
• cut-through
• adaptive fast-forward
• fragment-free
• adaptive cut-through

13 Which form of buffering is used by bridges?
• cut-through
• fragment-free
• fast-forward
• store-and-forward

14 Where are switching tables stored in a Cisco LAN switch?
• ROM
• CAM
• Flash
• SIMM
• NRAM

15 Which of the following are true regarding the addition of switches to a network? (Choose two.)
• They increase the number of collision domains.
• They decrease the number of collision domains.
• They increase the number of broadcast domains.
• They decrease the number of broadcast domains.
• They increase the amount of bandwidth available to users.
• They decrease the amount of bandwidth available to users.


16 Which of the following is used to build a switching table?
• source IP addresses
• destination IP addresses
• destination MAC addresses
• source MAC addresses

17 Which statements describe asymmetric switching? (Choose three.)
• It uses data compression algorithms to manage higher bandwidth interfaces.
• It is often used to provide high bandwidth uplinks for a number of lower bandwidth client interfaces.
• It provides connections between network segments that operate at different bandwidths.

• It uses cut-through forwarding when going from a lower bandwidth to a higher bandwidth interface.
• It is used to provide more bandwidth to network clients than to backbone or server links.
• It may require buffering frames before forwarding to the destination interface.

18 What does switch latency describe?
• forwarding method used by a switch
• time it takes for a frame to be received by a switch
• improvement in network performance from using a switch
• time delay between when a frame enters and exits a switch
• increase in the size of a collision domain from using a switch

19 How does an Ethernet bridge handle an incoming frame? (Choose three.)
• The source MAC address and input interface pair are added to the bridging table.
• The destination MAC address and input interface pair are added to the bridging table.
• If no match to the destination MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is discarded.
• If no match to the destination MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is flooded out all other interfaces.
• If a match to the destination MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is forwarded out the associated interface.

• If a match to the source MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is forwarded to all ports.

20 Which attribute is used by a bridge to make forwarding decisions?
• source IP address
• source MAC address
• destination IP address
• destination MAC address
• Layer 4-7 protocol address
»»  read more

CISCO CCNA 3 - Module 6 Exam Answers

Take Assessment - Module 6 Exam - CCNA 3 Switching Basics and Intermediate Routing (Version 3.1)

1 A new policy for disaster recovery requires copying all critical network configurations and operating systems to a backup server that will be stored offsite. Which command will create a backup of the switch IOS image on the server?
• Switch# copy tftp NVRAM
• Switch# copy running-config tftp
• Switch# copy flash tftp
• Switch# copy IOS tftp
• Switch# copy tftp flash
• Switch# copy NVRAM tftp

2 Which commands can be used to change from Global Configuration mode to Privileged EXEC mode? (Choose three.)
• Ctrl+z

• disable
• end
• exit

• logout

3 An administrator is using the switch help facility to find the command elements available to the configure command. What would the user type at the command prompt to display the next set of arguments available in the syntax for this command
• Switch# c?
• Switch# c ?
• Switch# configure?
• Switch# configure ?

4 Which switch command mode should always be password protected?
• User Command
• User Config
• User EXEC
• User Privileged
• Privileged EXEC

5 What must be done in order to initiate the password recovery procedure on a Catalyst 2900 series switch?
• Rename the Flash file.
• Enter the setup program by deleting the switch configuration file and rebooting the switch.
• Hold down the MODE button during switch startup.
• Wait for the STAT LED to turn green while holding down the Break key.
• Hold down the Ctrl-Break keys during switch startup.

6 Which protocol is used to copy a new IOS image to a Catalyst switch during the upgrade procedure?
• HTTP
• Telnet
• TFTP
• TTY
• IOS

7 A group of hosts has been connected to a new Fast Ethernet switch. Which of the following statements describe this newly created LAN, if the new switch has not yet been configured? (Choose three.)
• The hosts will negotiate 10 Mbps or 100 Mbps bandwidth with the switch, as required by their NICs.
• The hosts will be in separate broadcast domains.
• All of the hosts will be in the same VLAN.
• Hosts with 10 Mbps NICs will be unable to communicate with the network.
• All of the hosts should be able to send and receive ARP messages from each other.
• All of the hosts connected by Ethernet can manage the switch over Telnet or HTTP.

8 A workstation on a switched Ethernet LAN is to be upgraded with a new Fast Ethernet NIC. What should be done to ensure that the workstation will be able to gain access to the network?
• delete the configuration file from the switch and reload IOS
• deactivate port security on the port until the new host has connected to the network
• remove the host from the the management VLAN until the new MAC address has been learned by the switch
• delete the VLAN.dat file from flash and reboot the switch
• configure the attached switch port for full-duplex mode

9 Although the backup configuration file on a Catalyst 2950 switch has been erased, it is found that VLANs are still configured in the switch. What must be done to clear the configured VLANs?
• The vlan.dat file must be erased and the switch reloaded.
• The switch flash memory must be purged and the switch rebooted.
• The vlan.cfg file must be renamed and IOS restarted.
• Each VLAN needs to be deleted individually and the configuration saved.
• The switch needs to be restarted, because the old running configuration is still in memory.

10 Which type of cable is used to connect to the console port on a switch?
• a crossover cable
• a patch cable
• a rollover cable
• a straight-thru cable

11 From which switch command mode can the configure command be used?
• config
• user EXEC
• privileged EXEC
• command EXEC
• flash

12 An old workstation has been replaced with a new one. The workgroup switch, a Catalyst 2950, is not learning the MAC address of the new workstation. A network technician has verified that a static MAC address is not configured on the attached switch port. Which two commands can the technician issue at the switch CLI to further troubleshoot the problem? (Choose two.)
• Switch# show port security
• Switch# show version
• Switch# show startup-config
• Switch# clear mac-address-table dynamic
• Switch# reload
• Switch# delete flash:vlan.dat

13 Which methods can be used to perform the initial configuration of a new switch? (Choose two.)
• copy a configuration from a FTP server
• type commands manually after entering the Privileged EXEC mode
• enter the System Configuration dialog

• Telnet to a local server to copy a configuration file
• connect to the switch using a web browser

14 How long will a host MAC address remain in the address table of a switch after the host has been turned off or moved to another device?
• 30 seconds
• 180 seconds
• 300 seconds
• 30 minutes

15 What is the name of the series of tests that execute every time a switch is powered on?
• RPS
• bootstrap
• power-on self test
• system STAT
• pre-boot

16 After powering up a switch, the network technician notices that the system LED is amber. What can the technician assume? (Choose two.)
• The switch is negotiating full or half-duplex mode.
• The switch has completed negotiating 10 or 100 Mbps speed.
• The POST has failed.
• The boot sequence is in process.
• A fatal error has occurred.
• The switch is operating properly and is ready for service.

17 When the copy tftp flash command is used to upgrade the IOS on a switch, which symbol indicates that the image was copied successfully?
• e
• *
• !
• s
• #

18 What color is the System LED if the switch fails the POST?
• amber
• green
• red
• white
• off

19 How can a switch be configured to prevent unauthorized hosts from access to a network? (Choose three.)
• Host MAC addresses can be statically assigned to each switch port.
• Layer 2 access control lists can be used to prevent unauthorized network access.
• Unused ports can be shutdown.
• Passwords and usernames can be set for each Ethernet switch port.
• Unused switch ports can be assigned to the management VLAN.
• Port security can be activated to allow only the host with the first MAC address learned on a port to access the network.

20 Which files must be deleted in order to completely remove an existing configuration from a Cisco 2950 switch? (Choose two.)
• flash:c2950-c3h2s-mz.120-5-3.WC.1.bin
• running-config
• VLAN.bin
• startup-config
• c2950-c3h2s-mz.120-5-3.WC.1.dat
• VLAN.dat
»»  read more

CISCO CCNA 3 - Module 5 Exam Answers

Take Assessment - Module 5 Exam - CCNA 3 Switching Basics and Intermediate Routing (Version 3.1)

1 At which layer of the hierarchical design model do users connect to the network?
• application
• access
• distribution
• network
• core

2 Which layer of the hierarchical network design model is often referred to as the backbone
• access
• distribution
• network
• core
• workgroup
• WAN

3 What will increase the number of broadcast domains in a network? (Choose two.)
• replacing hubs with switches
• segmenting the network by installing a router
• creating VLANs for each workgroup

• adding additional hubs to the local area network
• replacing routers with LAN switches
• adding bridges to connect different workgroups

4 Where should DNS and email servers be located?
• IDF
• MDF
• HCC
• VCC
• POP

5 VLAN1 and VLAN2 have been configured on a switch. What must be done for hosts on VLAN1 to communicate with hosts on VLAN2?
• VLAN overlapping must be enabled on the switch.
• The MAC address must be added to the ARP table in the switch.
• A router must be configured to allow routing between the VLANs.
• An entry in the switching table must be configured for each VLAN.
• Communication between VLANs is automatically enabled on switches.

6 What type of cabling is specified by TIA/EIA standards for interconnection of Intermediate and Main Distribution Facilities?
• patch cables of variable lengths
• horizontal cross-connect cabling
• vertical cross-connect cabling
• parallel cross-connect cabling

7 Which of the following affect network availability? (Choose three.)
• throughput
• response time

• workstation speed
• access to resources
• desktop applications

8 Which of the following are requirements of LAN design? (Choose three.)
• adaptability
• manageability

• operability
• scalability
• stability

9 Why is it important that the data carrying capacity of vertical cabling be greater than that of the horizontal cable?
• Vertical cabling is reserved for high bandwith video conferencing.
• Vertical cabling carries traffic from the IDF to the user.
• Vertical cabling carries traffic from the enterprise out to the Internet.
• Vertical cabling carries traffic from multiple areas of the network.
• Layer-three packets move faster through vertical cabling.

10 A distribution layer switch operates at which OSI layers? (Choose two.)
• access
• data link
• network

• internet
• transport

11 To reduce cost on a new network design, administrators select switches that initially will have 100 Mbps interface modules installed but will also have the ability to support 1000 Mbps interface modules. Which of the LAN design goals are being utilized? (Choose two.)
• sustainability
• reliability
• manageability
• adaptability
• functionality
• scalability

12 Which of the following are characteristics of the core layer of the hierarchical network design model? (Choose three.)
• redundant paths
• high-level policy enforcement
• packet manipulation
• media transitions
• rapid forwarding of traffic
• no packet filtering

13 Which of the following are features of the access layer of the hierarchical network design model? (Choose two.)
• inter-VLAN routing
• Layer 2 filtering
• Layer 3 filtering
• microsegmentation
• bandwidth security

14 Which LAN standard uses CSMA/CD as its access method?
• FDDI
• Ethernet
• Wireless
• Token Ring

15 A network administrator needs to increase bandwidth and reduce traffic on a network. What should be used in the access layer of the hierarchical network design model to dedicate bandwidth to users while limiting broadcast domains?
• one router with multiple fast Ethernet interfaces
• multiple routers with Fast Ethernet interfaces
• multi-port gigabit switches
• switches running VLANs
• managed smart hubs

16 Which devices are considered acceptable for creating more connection points at the end of horizontal cable runs? (Choose two.)
• hubs
• bridges
• switches
• routers

17 A major network upgrade that was designed to improve speed and reliability has recently been completed. Users in one part of the network are experiencing dramatically decreased throughput and loss of connectivity. Which of the LAN design goals was not met for these users?
• functionality
• sustainability
• adaptability
• manageability
• scalability

18 When designing a LAN, at which layer of the OSI model does the process of segmenting collision domains occur?
• Layer 1
• Layer 2
• Layer 4
• Layer 7

19 Which hierarchical design model layer is responsible for containing network problems to the workgroups in which they occur?
• application
• access
• distribution
• network
• core

20 What is the primary reason for implementing security and policy routing at the distribution layer?
• filtering of core switching errors
• preventing policy and security issues from burdening the core layer
• preventing unnecessary security policy decisions from burdening the access layer
• maintaining a consistent three-layer security policy
• isolating the access layer from traffic destined for other networks

»»  read more

CISCO CCNA 3 - Module 7 Exam Answers

Take Assessment - Module 7 Exam - CCNA 3 Switching Basics and Intermediate Routing (Version 3.1)

1 Which of the following describe the BIDs used in a spanning tree topology? (Choose two.)
• They are sent out by the root bridge only after the inferior BPDUs are sent.
• They consist of a bridge priority and MAC address.
• Only the root bridge will send out a BID.
• They are used by the switches in a spanning tree topology to elect the root bridge.
• The switch with the fastest processor will have the lowest BID.

2 Which algorithm is used to create a loop free switched topology?
• Spanning Tree
• Shortest Path First
• Dykstra
• Rapid Tree
• Bellman-Ford

3 What is meant by "five nines" network uptime?
• A network should be available until 9:00 pm five days of the week.
• A network should be functioning 99.999% of the time.
• There should be five nine-port uplinks for each backbone segment.
• Five percent of network expenditures should address 99% of user requirements.
• Nothing short of 100% network uptime is acceptable in modern networks.

4

Switch_A and Switch_B shown in the graphic receive an ARP request from the host and forward it out their ports. The switches receive the forwarded requests from each other and in turn flood the requests again. What will be the result if this process continues?
• a broadcast storm
• multicast errors
• ARP table errors
• MAC address instability
• redundant unicast frame forwarding

5 Which of the following are valid STP port states? (Choose three.)
• blocking
• learning

• converging
• listening
• switching

6 How often are BPDUs sent by default in a network using the spanning-tree algorithm?
• every second
• every two seconds
• every three seconds
• every four seconds

7 What happens when there is a topology change on a network that utilizes STP ? (Choose two.)
• User traffic is disrupted until recalculation is complete.
• The switch recomputes the Spanning Tree topology after the network converges.
• All ports are placed in learning state until convergence has occurred.
• A delay of up to 50 seconds is incurred for convergence of the new Spanning Tree topology.
• User data is forwarded while BPDUs are exchanged to recompute the topology.

8 How can a network administrator influence which STP switch becomes the root bridge?
• Configure the switch as the static root bridge.
• Change the BPDU to a higher value than that of the other switches in the network.
• Change the BPDU to a lower value than that of the other switches in the network.
• Set the switch priority to a smaller value than that of the other switches in the network.
• Set the switch priority to a higher value than that of the other switches in the network.

9 What features of the Spanning-Tree Protocol contribute to the time it takes for a switched network to converge after a topology change occurs? (Choose three.)
• the max-age timer
• the listening forward delay

• the spanning-tree hold down timer
• the learning forward delay
• the spanning-tree path cost
• the blocking delay

10 How does a switch forward a multicast frame through the network?
• It floods it to all ports as a broadcast.
• It is forwarded only to ports that contain the destination address.
• It is sent to the port that contains the first destination address.
• It floods it to all ports except the one it was received on.
• It is dropped and not sent to any address.

11 Following a link failure, when does Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol allow point-to-point and edge type links to go to the forwarding state?
• in 15 seconds
• never
• immediately
• in 30 seconds
• after 90 seconds

12 What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology?
• election of the root bridge
• determination of the designated port for each segment
• blocking of the non-designated ports
• selection of the designated trunk port
• activation of the root port for each segment

13 What link types have been defined for Rapid Spanning-Tree Protocol? (Choose three.)
• shared
• end-to-end
• edge-type
• boundary-type
• point-to-many
• point-to-point

14 What characteristic of Ethernet makes a redundantly switched network prone to loops?
• Routers are only able to prevent loops at Layer 3, while Ethernet exists at Layer 2.
• The Ethernet protocol has no TTL mechanism.
• Switches lack the sophisticated software required to prevent loops.
• Looping of frames is a reliability mechanism built in to the Ethernet protocol.

15 In which STP state does a switch port transmit user data and learn MAC addresses?
• blocking
• learning
• disabling
• listening
• forwarding

16 In which STP state does a port record MAC addresses but not forward user data?
• blocking
• learning
• disabling
• listening
• forwarding

17 Which of the following criteria does a switch use to select the root bridge? (Choose two.)
• memory size
• bridge priority
• switching speed
• number of ports
• base MAC address
• switch location

18 What elements will exist in a converged network with one spanning tree? (Choose two.)
• one root bridge per network
• all non-designated ports forwarding
• one root port per non-root bridge
• multiple designated ports per segment
• one designated port per network

19

Refer to the network shown in the graphic. Host1 needs to transfer data to host2, but host1 has no MAC address entry in its ARP cache for host2. What will happen on the network as host1 prepares to transmit its data to host2?
• Host1 will receive an ICMP destination unknown message from switch3.
• All hosts in the network shown will receive an ARP request message from host1.
• Multicasting will occur until host2 is located.
• Switch3 will send the host2 MAC address from its bridging table to host1.
• A broadcast storm will occur.

20 How much time does it take for a switch port to go from the blocking state to the forwarding state?
• 2 seconds
• 15 seconds
• 20 seconds
• 50 seconds

21

Refer to the graphic. Server sends an ARP request for the MAC address of its default gateway. If STP is not enabled, what will be the result of this ARP request?
• Router_1 will kill the broadcast and reply with the MAC address of the next hop router.
• Switch_A will reply with the MAC address of the Router_1 E0 interface.
• Switch_A and Switch_B will continuously flood the message onto the network.
• Switch_B will broadcast the request and reply with the Router_1 address.
• The message will cycle around the network until its TTL is exceeded.

22 Which of the following are problems that can occur in redundantly switched networks? (Choose three.)
• broadcast storms
• corrupted ARP tables
• duplicate MAC addresses
• inaccurate routing tables
• multiple copies of Ethernet frames
• MAC address table instability

23 How is the information contained in BPDUs used by switches? (Choose two.)
• to prevent loops by sharing bridging tables between connected switches
• to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
• to determine the shortest path to the root bridge
• to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree

• to activate looped paths throughout the network
»»  read more

CISCO CCNA 3 - Module 8 Exam Answers

Take Assessment - Module 8 Exam - CCNA 3 Switching Basics and Intermediate Routing (Version 3.1)

1 Which approach to assigning VLAN membership maximizes forwarding performance?
• membership by MAC address
• membership by logical address
• membership by protocol
• membership by port
• membership by operating system

2 What are the characteristics of VLAN1 in a default switch configuration? (Choose three.)
• CDP messages are only sent on VLAN1.
• VLAN1 is reserved for links between switches.
• All switch ports are members of VLAN1.
• VLAN1 must be created before ports can be assigned to it.
• Only switch port 0/1 is assigned to VLAN1.
• An IP address configured on the switch will only apply to ports on VLAN1.

3 How does a bridge handle the frames that it receives? (Choose three.)
• If the source is unknown, the source port is shutdown.
• If the source port of a frame is unknown, a bridge will issue an ARP request.
• If the destination is on another segment, the bridge forwards the frame only to the correct interface.
• A bridge forwards frames for unknown destinations to the default gateway.
• If the destination port is unknown, a bridge will flood the frame to all ports in the broadcast domain, except for the source port.
• If the destination of the frame is on the same segment as the source, a bridge will not forward the frame.

4 What needs to be done when deleting an entire VLAN? (Choose three.)
• Enter database configuration mode.
• Reboot the switch in order for the changes to take effect.
• Use the negative form of the command that was used to create the VLAN.
• Reassign the switch ports from the deleted VLAN to other VLANs if they are to be used.

• Use the erase vlan command in global configuration mode.
• Delete the vlan.dat file from flash.

5 A network administrator is attempting to configure routing between VLANs over a trunked link. A trunk link cannot be established between a switch and a router. Which of the following are possible sources of this problem? (Choose two.)
• The router IOS does not support trunking.
• The port is connected and is not receiving alignment and FCS errors.
• The switch duplex and speed are not set properly.
• The router and switch are running different versions of STP.
• The switch IP address is incorrectly configured.

6 If two 12-port hubs are connected to a switch that has three VLANs configured, how many bridging tables will the switch maintain?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 12
• 36

7 A network administrator has configured a switch with VLANs. Hosts will join the VLANs based on their MAC or IP address. What type of VLANs have been configured on the switch?
• dynamic
• database
• multiple
• port-based

8 A network administrator has configured a switch with three VLANs: VLAN1, VLAN2, and VLAN3. Port 10 is to be assigned to VLAN3. Which of the following commands are needed to assign port 10 to VLAN3? (Choose three.)
• Switch_1(config)# switchport interface fastethernet 0/10
• Switch_1(config-if)# switchport mode access
• Switch_1(config-if)# switchport access
• Switch_1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3
• Switch_1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/10

• Switch_1# vlan database

9 How does the use of VLANs benefit an organization? (Choose two.)
• by centralizing departmental staff and network resources together in a single physical area
• by allowing organizational flexibility by grouping users together by function instead of physical location
• by simplifying the task of adding and moving network resources and users in a growing organization

• by reducing the number of broadcast domains in an enterprise network
• by eliminating the need for routing traffic in large networks
• by reducing network management costs by replacing many Layer 2 devices with a few Layer 3 devices

10 Which of the following states the 80/20 rule of end-to-end VLANs
• 80% of network resources should be remote and 20% should be on the local VLAN.
• 80% of VLANs should be static and the remaining 20% should be dynamic.
• 80% of network traffic should be local and 20% remote.
• 80% of the network sources should be centralized at the core layer and the remaining 20% at the distribution layer.
• 80% of traffic should be routed and 20% should be switched.

11 Which factors influence the number of VLANs that may be required on a switch? (Choose three.)
• the physical addressing scheme
• traffic patterns in the network
• types of applications in use

• the adaptability of the network
• workgroup functions and commonality
• the tagging option used for VLAN identification

12 A network administrator has just finished configuring a switch with multiple VLANs. A workstation on VLAN2 cannot communicate with a workstation on VLAN3. What needs to be done to correct this problem?
• The traffic needs to be routed between the two VLANs.
• The hosts must be reconfigured to be on the same logical network.
• The VLANs need to be configured to be on the same broadcast domain.
• The switch must be configured to share VLAN traffic.

13 Which of the following describe networks in which the use of static VLANs is appropriate? (Choose three.)
• Workstations, departments, and network resources are seldom moved.
• VLAN port membership frequently changes.
• Robust VLAN management software is available to the network administrator.
• The overhead required to manage VLAN MAC address and custom filtering tables is not desirable.

• VLANs are often added, deleted, and modified.

14 VLAN 10 needs to be removed from a switch. Which command must the administrator enter in order to accomplish this task?
• Switch(config-if)# no switchport access vlan 10
• Switch(config-if)# erase switchport access vlan 10
• Switch(vlan)# no vlan 10
• Switch(vlan)# no vlan database 10

15

Refer to the network shown in the graphic. Host A on VLAN1 has sent a message requesting the MAC address of its default gateway. Which of the following network hosts will process this message?
• The message will be seen by the hosts on VLAN1 and VLAN2.
• The message will be seen only by the hosts connected to Switch1.
• The message will be seen only by the hosts connected to VLAN1 on Switch1.
• The message will be seen by the hosts connected to VLAN1 on Switch1 and Switch2.
• The message will only be seen by router interface e0. •

16 If a switch connects 12 collision domains and is configured with three VLANs, how many broadcast domains does it have?
• 1
• 3
• 4
• 12

17 Which of the following commands are used to verify VLAN configuration? (Choose two.)
• Switch# show vlan id id_number
• Switch# show vlan

• Switch# show config vlan id_number
• Switch# show vlan config id_number
• Switch# show interface vlan id_number

18 Which of the following commands will assign switch port 0/9 to VLAN3?
• Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3
• Switch(config-if)# switchport vlan 3
• Switch(config-if)# switchport access 3
• Switch(vlan)# switchport 0/9
• Switch(vlan)# access switchport 0/9

19 What does a switch do when it receives a frame and the source address is unknown?
• The switch will discard the frame.
• The switch will request the sender resend the frame.
• The switch will map the source address to the port on which it was received.
• The switch will flood the frame to all attached devices.
• The switch will issue an ARP request to confirm that the source exists.

20 What is true of the method by which VLAN membership is identified in Ethernet frames? (Choose two.)
• The frame header is in its original format when it reaches the endpoint device.
• The VLAN membership of frames does not need to be identified unless ISL is in use.
• The Ethernet frame is encapsulated or modified with the VLAN ID information.
• The VLAN ID is removed by the endpoint device upon delivery of the frame.

21 Which of the following statements are true regarding a root bridge in a spanning tree topology? (Choose two.)
• The root bridge timers control BPDU traffic on the network.
• Only the show commands on the switch can display root bridge information.
• It is the central point of a spanning tree topology.
• Storm control is enabled by default.
• VLANs cannot be trunked between switches until the root bridge has been elected.

22 Which of the following are methods of establishing VLAN membership? (Choose three.)
• logical addresses
• physical addresses

• ISL addresses
• switch port attachment
• hardware platform
• traffic pattern

23 Switch-A and Switch-B are both configured with ports in the Marketing, Sales, Accounting, and Admin VLANs. Each VLAN contains 12 users. How many different subnetworks will be needed to enable routed connectivity between the VLANs?
• 1
• 4
• 12
• 48

24 What happens to the member ports of a VLAN when the VLAN is deleted?
• They become inactive.
• They default back to the management VLAN.
• They automatically become a part of VLAN1.
• They must be assigned to another VLAN before the original VLAN can be deleted.
• They remain a part of that VLAN until the switch is rebooted. They then become members of the management VLAN.
»»  read more

SUBSCRIBE VIA EMAIL

Enter your email address:

Delivered by FeedBurner



Video of the Month

Labels

50 Cent ADELE AKON ALAINA WHITAKER Alanis Morissette Album Alexandra Burke Alicia Keys AMERICAN IDOL PERFORMANCE Amerie ANDRE 3000 ANTHONY HAMILTON ASHANTI Assessment Cisco Program Edit audio AVRIL LAVIGNE BACKSTREET BOYS Benisour Benzino Beyonce Birdman Black Eyed Peas Blondie BRANDY Brian Mcknight Britney Spears Brooke Hogan BROOKE VALENTINE Bun B Butta creme CASSIE CCNA 1 CCNA 2 ccna 3 ccna 3 version 4 CCNA 3 version 4 CHAPTER 1 ccna 3 version 4 CHAPTER 2 CCNA 4 - Module 6 Exam Answers CCNA Discovery 4.0 Curriculum CCNA Exploration 4.0: Routing Protocols and Concepts Chamillionaire Chapter 1 Exam Answers Chapter 10 Exam Answers Chapter 3 Exam Answers Chapter 4 Exam Answers Chapter 5 Exam Answers Chapter 6 Exam Answers Chapter 8 Exam Answers Chapter 9 Exam Answers Cherisme CHICK COREA AND JOHN MCLAUGHLIN Chis Brown Chpater 2 Exam Answers CHRIS BROWN Chrisette Michelle CHRISTINA AGUILERA ciara CISCO CCNA 1 CISCO CCNA 1 - Module 1 Exam Answers CISCO CCNA 1 - Module 2 Exam Answers CISCO CCNA 1 - Module 3 Exam Answers CISCO CCNA 1 - Module 4 Exam Answers CISCO CCNA 1 - Module 5 Exam Answers CISCO CCNA 1 - Module 6 Exam Answers CISCO CCNA 1 - Module 6/7 Exam Answers CISCO CCNA 1 - Module 7 Exam Answers CISCO CCNA 1 - Module 8 Exam Answers CISCO CCNA 1 - Module 9 Exam Answers CISCO CCNA 1 - Module 9/10 Exam Answers CISCO CCNA 1 - Practice Final CISCO CCNA 1- Final Exam Result CISCO CCNA 2 CISCO CCNA 2 - Module 10 Exam Answers CISCO CCNA 2 - Practice Final CISCO CCNA 2 - Voucher Exam CISCO CCNA 3 CISCO CCNA 3 - Final Exam CISCO CCNA 3 - Module 1 Exam Answers CISCO CCNA 3 - Module 2 Exam Answers CISCO CCNA 3 - Module 3 Exam Answers CISCO CCNA 3 - Module 4 Exam Answers CISCO CCNA 3 - Module 5 Exam Answers CISCO CCNA 3 - Module 6 Exam Answers CISCO CCNA 3 - Module 7 Exam Answers CISCO CCNA 3 - Module 8 Exam Answers CISCO CCNA 3 - Module 9 Exam Answers CISCO CCNA 3- PRACTICE FINAL Cisco CCNA 4 CISCO CCNA 4 - Module 1 Exam Answers CISCO CCNA 4 - Voucher Exam Cisco CCNA 4 Exam 2 Answer Cisco CCNA 4 Exam 3 Answer Cisco CCNA 4 Exam 4 Answer Cisco CCNA 4 Exam 5 Answer Cisco CCNA 4 Final Exam Answer COLBY O DONIS Common CRAIG DAVID DANITY KANE DAVID ARCHULETA DAVID BANNER David Guetta DAY 26 Discovery 1 Discovery 1 - Final Exam Discovery 1 - Module 1 Discovery 1 - Module 2 Discovery 1 - Module 3 Discovery 1 - Module 4 Discovery 1 - Module 5 Discovery 1 - Module 6 Discovery 1 - Module 7 Discovery 1 - Module 8 Discovery 1 - Module 9 Discovery 2 Discovery 2 - FINAL EXAM Discovery 2 - Module 1 Discovery 2 - Module 2 Discovery 2 - Module 3 Discovery 2 - Module 4 Discovery 2 - Module 5 Discovery 2 - Module 6 Discovery 2 - Module 8 Discovery 4.0 Disk Defragmenter Utility Dizzy Dondria Donell Jones Downloads Drake Duffy EDUARDO CRUZ Eminem ENRIQUE IGLESIAS Eric Benet ESTELLE Ester Dean Etta James Fabolous FAT JOE FERGIE FLO RIDA Fly C FREEWAY game GIRLICIOUS GIT FRESH Gucci Mane J. HOLIDAY James Blunt JAMIE FOXX JANET JACKSON Jazmine Sullivan Jennifer Hudson Jennifer Lopez Jesse McCartney Joe Budden JOE THOMAS John Austin JOHN LEGEND John Mayer Jojo Jordin Sparks Jordyn Taylor justin timberlake KANYE WEST KAT DELUNA Kelis Keri Hilson KERI HISON Kesha Keshia Chanté keyshia cole Khia Kid Cudi KINGSTON Kree KYLIE MINOGUE Lady Gaga LAST GOODNIGHT LEELAND LEONA LEWIS Letoya Luckett Lil Jon lil kim LIL MAMA lil mo LIL WAYNE Lindsay Lohan LINKIN PARK ll cool LL COOL J LLOYD Ludacris Lyrics M.I MADONNA Marc Anthony MARIAH CAREY MARIO maroon 5 Marquez Mary Mary MATT POKORA Mayweather Mccall MEL B Melanie Fiona MICHAEL JACKSON MICHELLE WILLIAMS Missy Elliot Mo'Cheddah MOBY Module Final Exam Monica Ms Porsh MYA N.E.R.D. NAS NATASHA BEDINGFIELD Ne-yo NEO News Nicole Scherzinger Nina Sky Nipsey Hussle Paris Hilton PAULA ABDUL PITBULL Pleasure P Pretty Ricky Pussycat Dolls R. KELLY Remix Rhea Rick Ross RICK ROSS AND DRE Rihanna RL Robin Routing Protocols and Concepts RYAN LESLIE Sandra Sean Kingston Sean Paul September SHAGGY SHAKIRA Shawty SNOOP DOGG solange SOULJA BOY TELL'EM Sugarbabes T-Pain T.I. TAMIA TANK TEAIRRA MARI THE DREAM The Game Tiffany Evans TIMBALAND Timberland Toni Braxton Trey Songz TUPAC Twista Tyga USHER VIDEO Wale WESTLIFE Whitney Houston Young Joc
 

Copyright © 2009 by Purely Arribuh