Discovery 1 - Module 1

1)
 
Which computer component is considered the nerve center of the computer system and is responsible for processing all of the data within the machine?
 RAM
CPU
video card
 sound card
 operating system

2)
 
What are two advantages of purchasing a preassembled computer? (Choose two.)
usually a lower cost
exact components may be specified
 extended waiting period for assembly
adequate for performing most general applications
suited for customers with special needs

3)
 
A user plans to run multiple applications simultaneously on a computer. Which computer component is essential to accomplish this?
RAM
NIC
 video card
 sound card
 storage device

4)
 
Which adapter card enables a computer system to exchange information with other systems on a local network?
 modem card
 controller card
 video card
 sound card
network interface card

5)

 
What is the main storage drive used by servers, desktops, and laptops?
 tape drive
hard drive
optical drive (DVD)
 floppy disk drive

6)
 
Which component is designed to remove high-voltage spikes and surges from a power line so that they do not damage a computer system?
 CPU
surge suppressor
motherboard
 hard drive

7)
 
What are two examples of output peripheral devices? (Choose two.)
printer
speakers
 flash drive
 external DVD
 external modem

8)
 
What two functions does a UPS provide that a surge protector does not ? (Choose two.)
 protects the computer from voltage surges
provides backup power from an internal battery
protects the computer from sudden voltage spikes
 gives the user time to phone the electrical company
gives the user time to safely shut down the computer if the power fails
 provides backup power through a generator provided by the wall outlet

9)
 
What is a word processor?
 It is a physical computer component.
It is a program designed to perform a specific function.
It is a program that controls the computer resources.
 It is a functional part of an operating system.

10)
 
What is the purpose of the ASCII code?
 translates bits into bytes
 interprets graphics digitally
 translates digital computer language into binary language
represents letters, characters, and numbers with bits

11)
 
Why do servers often contain duplicate or redundant parts?
 Servers require more power and thus require more components.
Servers should be accessible at all times.
Servers can be designed as standalone towers or rack mounted.
 Servers are required by networking standards to have duplicate parts.

12)
 
What are two benefits of hooking up a laptop to a docking station? (Choose two.)
 Mobility is increased.
An external monitor can be used.
Alternate connectivity options may be available.
The keyboard can be changed to a QWERTY-style keyboard.
 More wireless security options are available.

13)
 
Applications can be grouped into general use software or industry specific software. What are two examples of industry specific software? (Choose two.)
CAD
presentation
 spreadsheet
 word processing
medical practice management
contacts/scheduling management

14)
 
Which three terms describe different types of computers? (Choose three.)
 operating system
 network
laptop
desktop
 Windows
mainframe 

15)
 
How is a server different from a workstation computer?
 The server works as a standalone computer.
The server provides services to clients.
The workstation has fewer applications installed.
 The workstation has more users who attach to it.

16) 
 
How many values are possible using a single binary digit?
 1
2
4
 8
 9
 16

17)

 
What measurement is commonly associated with computer processing speed?
 bits
 pixels
hertz
bytes


18)
 
What can be used to prevent electrostatic discharge (ESD)?
 dry and non humid conditions
 carpeted floor
grounding strap
 uncluttered work space

19)
 
 
If a peripheral device is not functioning, what are three things you should do to solve the problem? (Choose three.)
Use the testing functionality on the peripheral itself, if available.
Verify that all cables are connected properly.
 Disconnect all cables connected to the computer except those connected to the peripheral.
Ensure that the peripheral is powered on.
Disconnect the peripheral and verify that the computer is operating normally.
 Reload the computer operating system.

20)
 
Which two steps should be performed when installing a peripheral device? (Choose two.)
Download and install the most current driver.
 Connect the peripheral using any cable and any available port on the computer.
Connect the peripheral using an appropriate cable or wireless connection.
Test the peripheral on another machine before installing it on the one where it will be used.
 Check the computer documentation to see if the peripheral vendor is compatible with the PC vendor.

21)
 
In newer operating systems, how are system resources assigned by default when components are installed?
 manually assigned by the operating system
 manually assigned by the administrator
 statically assigned by the component to a preset resource
dynamically assigned between the component and the operating system

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Discovery 1 - Module 2

1)
 
An operating system is severely damaged. All data on the partition needs to be deleted, and all application software must be reinstalled. Which installation method should be used to correct the problem?
* clean install
upgrade
 multi-boot
 virtualization

2)
 
Which two statements should be included in a pre-installation checklist when upgrading an operating system? (Choose two.)
 Verify that the hardware resources have multiple partitions.
* Verify that the hardware resources meet or exceed the published minimum requirements.
* Complete a full backup of all important files and data.
Overwrite any data currently contained on the drive to remove all contents.
 Verify that the hardware resources are certified to work with the existing operating system prior to upgrading.

3)
 
Which three pieces of information must be specified on a computer to allow that computer to send and receive information across networks? (Choose three.)
 closest server
 operating system
* IP address
* subnet mask
* default gateway
 network card driver

4)
 
Which two items must be unique to each computer and cannot be duplicated on a network? (Choose two.)
 partition
 file system
* computer name
* IP address
operating system

5)
 
Which method of interacting with an operating system involves typing commands at a command prompt?
* CLI
GUI
 redirector
 kernel translator

6)
 
What are three characteristics of an operating system that is released under the GPL (GNU Public License)? (Choose three.)
* full access to source code
* software often available free
structured development cycle
 can be expensive to purchase
 limits what end-user can do with code
* support normally user-based and often free

7)
  
What is the purpose of a default gateway?
 physically connects a computer to a network
 provides a permanent address to a computer
 identifies the network to which a computer is connected
 identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
* identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks 

8)
  
Which two statements are true about drive partitions? (Choose two.)
* Partitions are necessary in multi-boot installations.
* A hard drive can be divided into an operating system partition and a data partition.
User data is never overwritten when a drive is partitioned.
 A disk partition is a defined section of an operating system.
 Each partition requires a different file system type.

9)
What occurs when computers are configured to receive their network configurations dynamically?
 Each computer receives a permanent IP address.
 A network administrator enters information on each computer.
* Each computer requests configuration information from a server.
An NIC automatically provides configuration information to the computer and stores that configuration information.

10)
 
What are two ways that a user can interact with an operating system shell? (Choose two.)
* CLI
 OS
* GUI
NIC
 kernel

11)
 
Which three resource specifications are given by the manufacturer to ensure that an operating system performs as designed? (Choose three.)
* required hard disk space
 type of accelerated graphics card
* recommended amount of RAM
printer requirements
* processor type and speed
 type of keyboard

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Discovery 1 - Module 3

1)
 
Which term is used to describe the process of placing one message format into another format so that the message can be delivered across the appropriate medium?
 flow control
* encapsulation
encoding
 multicasting
 access method

2)

 Refer to the graphic. Five PCs are connected through a hub. If host H1 wants to reply to a message from host H2, which statement is true?
* H1 sends a unicast message to H2, but the hub forwards it to all devices.
H1 sends a unicast message to H2, and the hub forwards it directly to H2.
 H1 sends a broadcast message to H2, and the hub forwards it to all devices.
 H1 sends a multicast message to H2, and the hub forwards it directly to H2.

3)
 
Which two statements concerning networking standards are true? (Choose two.)
 adds complexity to networks
 encourages vendors to create proprietary protocols
* provides consistent interconnections across networks
ensures that communications work best in a single-vendor environment
* simplifies new product development

4)
 
What does the 100 mean when referencing the 100BASE-T Ethernet standard?
 type of cable used
 type of data transmission
* speed of transmission
type of connector required
 maximum length of cable allowed

5)
 
Which address does an NIC use when deciding whether to accept a frame?
 source IP address
 source MAC address
 destination IP address
* destination MAC address
source Ethernet address

6)
 
Which type of address is used in an Ethernet frame header?
 logical addresses only
 IP addresses only
* MAC addresses only
broadcast addresses only

7)
hat is the function of the FCS field in an Ethernet frame?
* detects transmission errors
 provides timing for transmission
 contains the start of frame delimiter
 indicates which protocol will receive the frame

8)
 
What is the purpose of logical addresses in an IP network?
 They identify a specific NIC on a host device.
 They are used to determine which host device accepts the frame.
 They provide vendor-specific information about the host.
* They are used to determine the network that the host is located on.
They are used by switches to make forwarding decisions.

9)
 
Which device accepts a message on one port and always forwards the message to all other ports?
 modem
 switch
 router
* hub

10)
 
Which two networking devices are used to connect hosts to the access layer? (Choose two.)
 router
* hub
* switch
 server
 computer

11)
 
Host A needs to learn the MAC address of Host B, which is on the same LAN segment. A message has been sent to all the hosts on the segment asking for the MAC address of Host B. Host B responds with its MAC address and all other hosts disregard the request. What protocol was used in this scenario?
* ARP
DHCP
 DNS
 WINS

12)
 
A switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address that is currently not in the MAC table. What action does the switch perform?
 It drops the frame.
 It sends out an ARP request looking for the MAC address.
* It floods the frame out of all active ports, except the origination port.
It returns the frame to the sender.

13)
 
What is a benefit of having a router within the distribution layer?
 prevents collisions on a local network
* keeps broadcasts contained within a local network
controls which hosts have access to the network
 controls host-to-host traffic within a single local network

14)

 Refer to the graphic. What does the router do after it determines that a data packet from Network 1 should be forwarded to Network 2?
 It sends the data packet as it was received.
* It reassembles the frame with different MAC addresses than the original frame.
It reassembles the data packet with different IP addresses than the original data packet.
 It reassembles both the packet and the frame with different destination IP and MAC addresses.

15)
 
Which table does a router use to make decisions on where a data packet is to be sent?
 ARP table
* routing table
network table
 forwarding table

16)
 
If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
 The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
* The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
 There is no impact on communications.

17)
 
What device is typically used as the default gateway for a computer?
 a server hosted by the ISP
* the router interface closest to the computer
a server managed by a central IT department
 the switch interface that connects to the computer

18)
 
If a router receives a packet that it does not know how to forward, what type of route must be configured on the router to prevent the router from dropping it?
 dynamic route
* default route
destination route
 default destination

19)
 
Which two items are included in a network logical map? (Choose two.)
* naming scheme
* IP addressing scheme
length of cable runs
 physical location of networking devices
 specific layout of interconnections between networking devices and hosts

20)
 
An integrated router can normally perform the functions of which two other network devices? (Choose two.)
 NIC
* switch
 e-mail server
 application server
* wireless access point

21)
  
What is a reason for disabling simple file sharing?
 It enables the user to map a remote resource with a local drive.
 It enables the user to share all files with all users and groups.
 It enables the user to share printers.
* It enables the user to set more specific security access levels.

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Discovery 1 - Module 4

1)
 
Which definition describes the term Internet?
 a group of PCs connected together on a LAN
 a group of PCs connected together by an ISP
* a network of networks that connects countries around the world
a worldwide collection of networks controlled by a single organization

2)
 
What type of connection point is a point of presence (POP)?
 between a client and a host
 between two local networks
 between a computer and a switch
* between an ISP and a home-based LAN

3)
 
What is the term for the group of high-speed data links that interconnect ISPs?
 Internet LAN
 ISP backbone
 Internet gateways
 Internet providers
* Internet backbone

4)

 
Which device can act as a router, switch, and wireless access point in one package?
 hub
 bridge
 modem
 repeater
* ISR

5)

What are three characteristics of business class ISP service? (Choose three.)
* fast connections
* extra web space
free Windows upgrade
 cheapest cost available to all users
* additional e-mail accounts
replacement hardware at no cost

6)
 
What is a major characteristic of asymmetric Internet service?
 Download speeds and upload speeds are equal.
 Download speeds are slower than upload speeds.
* Upload speeds and download speeds are different.
Upload speeds and download speeds are irrelevant.

7)
  
Which three elements are required to successfully connect to the Internet? (Choose three.)
* an IP address
file sharing enabled
* a network connection
server services enabled
* access to an Internet service provider
an address obtained directly from the RIR

8)

 
What term describes each router through which a packet travels when moving between source and destination networks?
 NOC
 ISP
* hop
segment

9)
 
What does the tracert command test?
 NIC functionality
 the ISP bandwidth
* the network path to a destination
 the destination application functionality

10)
 
What type of end-user connectivity requires that an ISP have a DSLAM device in their network?
 analog technology
 cable modem technology
* digital subscriber line technology
wireless technology

11)
 
Why would an ISP require a CMTS device on their network?
* to connect end users using cable technology
 to connect end users using analog technology
 to connect end users using wireless technology
 to connect end users using digital subscriber line technology

12)

 Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?
 STP
 UTP
 coax
* fiber

13)

 Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?
 STP
* UTP
coax
 fiber

14)
 
Which two places are most appropriate to use UTP cabling? (Choose two.)
 between buildings
* in a home office network
 where EMI is an issue
 in a cable TV network
* inside a school building
 in a manufacturing environment with hundreds of electrical devices

15)
 
What does adherence to cabling standards ensure?
 data security
 no loss of signal
 no electromagnetic interference
* reliable data communications

16)

 Refer to the graphic. What type of cable is shown?
* crossover
eight coax channels
 multimode fiber
 single-mode fiber
 straight-through

17)
  
What connector is used to terminate Ethernet unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cabling?
 ST
 BNC
 RJ-11
* RJ-45

18)
 
Which two characteristics describe copper patch panels? (Choose two.)
 uses RJ-11 jacks
* uses RJ-45 jacks
supports only data transmissions
* allows quick rearrangements of network connections
forwards transmissions based on MAC addresses

19)
 
What are two advantages of cable management? (Choose two.)
 requires no preplanning
* aids in isolation of cabling problems
* protects cables from physical damage
provides compliance with future standards
 provides a short-term solution for cable installation

20)
 
What are two common causes of signal degradation when using UTP cabling? (Choose two.)
 installing cables in conduit
* having improper termination
losing light over long distances
 installing low quality cable shielding
* using low quality cables or connectors

21)
 
What are three commonly followed standards for constructing and installing cabling? (Choose three.)
* pinouts
* cable lengths
connector color
* connector types
cost per meter (foot)
 tensile strength of plastic insulator

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Discovery 1 - Module 5

1)

How large are IPv4 addresses?
 8 bits
 16 bits
* 32 bits
64 bits
 128 bits

2)

 Refer to the graphic. A user at the workstation cannot connect to the server. All cables have been tested and are working and all devices have IP addressing. However, the user cannot ping the server. What is causing the problem?
 The router interface does not have a default gateway.
 The switch does not have an IP address and default gateway.
* The workstation and server are on different logical networks.
The workstation does not know the MAC address of the switch.

3)
  
Which part of an IP address identifies a specific device on a network?
 first two octets
 third and fourth octets
 network portion
* host portion
only the fourth octet

4)
  
Given a host with the IP address 172.32.65.13 and a default subnet mask, to which network does the host belong?
 172.32.65.0
 172.32.65.32
* 172.32.0.0
172.32.32.0

5)
 
Which default subnet mask provides the most host bits?
* 255.0.0.0
255.255.0.0
 255.255.255.0
 255.255.255.252

6)
 
How many bits are available for Class B host IP addresses using a default subnet mask?
 4
 8
* 16
24

7)
  
How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
* 254
 255
 256
 510
 511
 512

8)
 
Assuming a default mask, which portion of the IP address 175.124.35.4 represents the host?
 175.124
* 35.4
.4
 124.35.4
 175.124.35

9)
 
Which of the following are private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
* 10.1.1.1
172.32.5.2
 192.167.10.10
* 172.16.4.4
* 192.168.5.5
224.6.6.6

10)
 
What destination IP address is used in a unicast packet?
* a specific host
a group of hosts
 the default gateway
 the network broadcast address

11)
 
What is the destination MAC address in a multicast Ethernet frame?
 the MAC address of the sending host
 the MAC address of the destination host
* an address that begins with 01-00-5E in hexadecimal
a 48-bit hexadecimal address expressed as FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF

12)
 
Yvonne is talking to her friend on the phone. What type of message is this?
 broadcast
 simulcast
 multicast
* unicast

13)
 
What information must be included within a unicast message for it to be delivered on an Ethernet network?
 MAC and IP addresses for the default router
 IP address and subnet mask of the default gateway
 MAC and IP addresses that correspond to a destination group
* MAC and IP addresses that correspond to a specific destination host

14)
 
A PC obtains its IP address from a DHCP server. If the PC is taken off the network for repair, what happens to the IP address configuration?
 The configuration is permanent and nothing changes.
 The address lease is automatically renewed until the PC is returned.
* The address is returned to the pool for reuse when the lease expires.
 The configuration is held by the server to be reissued when the PC is returned.

15)
 
Which type of server dynamically assigns an IP address to a host?
 ARP
* DHCP
DNS
 RARP

16)
 
Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover message? (Choose three.)
 The source MAC address is 48 ones (FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF).
* The destination IP address is 255.255.255.255.
 The message comes from a server offering an IP address.
* The message comes from a client seeking an IP address.
* All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server replies.
Only the DHCP server receives the message.

17)

 Refer to the graphic. A host connects to a Linksys integrated router that is also a DHCP server and receives an IP address from it. Which address does the host need to access the ISP and the Internet?
 IP address of the destination host
 public gateway IP address of the ISP
 external IP address of the integrated router that connects to the ISP
* internal IP address of the integrated router that connects to the local network

18)
 
Which statement is true concerning private IP addresses?
 ensures that two networks separated by the Internet use unique IP network numbers
 allows internal hosts to communicate with servers across the Internet
* solves the issue of a finite number of available public IP addresses
allows for ISPs to be able to quickly determine network location

19)
 
What is one of the purposes of NAT?
 filters network traffic based on IP address ranges
* prevents external users from detecting the IP addresses used on a network
inspects traffic that might be harmful or used in an attack against the network
 translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names

20)
 
Which two statements describe packets that are sent through a Linksys integrated router using NAT? (Choose two.)
 Packets that are sent to any destination need to be translated.
 Packets that are sent to hosts on the same network need to be translated.
* Packets that are sent to a destination outside the local network need to be translated.
Packets that are sent to a destination outside a local network do not need to be translated.
* Packets that are sent between hosts on the same local network do not need to be translated.

21)

 Refer to the graphic. NAT and DHCP are installed on the Linksys integrated router. Which IP address is most likely to be assigned to the local computer, Host1?
* 10.0.0.17
128.107.1.2
 192.135.250.0
 209.165.201.1

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Discovery 1 - Module 6

1)
  
A user types www.cisco.com into a web browser address textbox. What does www.cisco.com represent?
* the IP address of a web server
a physical network address
 the closest router interface to the source
 the source IP address in the data transmission

2)

What type of server would use IMAP?
 DNS
 DHCP
* e-mail
FTP
 Telnet
 web

3) 
 
Which type of server would most likely be used first by a network client in a corporate environment?
 DNS
* DHCP
e-mail
 FTP
 Telnet
 web

4)

Which protocol is used by FTP to transfer files over the Internet?
* TCP
SMTP
 UDP
 SNMP

5) 
 
Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)
 UDP
* FTP
 IP
* SMTP
TCP

6)
  
Which of the following are layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
* Application
 Physical
* Internet
* Network Access
Presentation

7)
 
You are creating a network-based video game. What influences your decision about which transport protocol to use for the application?
* UDP will not disrupt the game to retransmit dropped packets.
TCP provides extra acknowledgements that will ensure smooth video delivery.
 Both TCP and UDP can be used simultaneously to ensure speed and guaranteed delivery.
 Both TCP and UDP may slow transmission and disrupt game operation, so no transport protocol should be used.

8)

Whenever e-mail clients send letters, what device is used to translate the domain names into their associated IP addresses?
 Uniform Resource Locator
 Network redirector server
 SNMP server
* DNS server

9)
 
Which application is most likely used to translate www.cisco.com to 198.133.219.25?
 DHCP
* DNS
FTP
 HTTP
 POP
 SMTP

10)

 Refer to the graphic. Which protocol is used to access this website?
 IM
 FTP
* HTTP
SNMP
 VoIP

11)
 
Which port number is used by SMTP?
 20
 21
* 25
26
 110

12)
 
Which protocol is used by e-mail servers to communicate with each other?
 FTP
 HTTP
 TFTP
* SMTP
POP
 SNMP

13)
 
What client software enables logged in users to communicate with other logged in users in real time?
 blog
 e-mail
 web mail
* instant messaging

14)
 
An Internet server is running both FTP and HTTP services. How does the server know which of these applications should handle an incoming segment?
 The packet header identifies it as an HTTP or FTP packet.
 The data in the segment is specially formatted for either HTTP or FTP.
* The segment destination port number identifies the application that should handle it.
The source port number is associated with one of these well known server applications.

15)
 
What term is used to describe how TCP/IP protocols are layered and interact to format, address, and transmit information across a network?
 protocol hierarchy
 protocol modeling
* protocol stack
protocol layering

16)
 
What three items are contained in an Ethernet frame? (Choose three.)
 source IP address
* source MAC address
 destination IP address
* destination MAC address
* error-checking information

17)
 
What information is contained in an IP header?
* source and destination IP addresses
source and destination MAC addresses
 only destination IP and MAC addresses
 both source and destination IP and MAC addresses

18)
 
Cabling issues are associated with which OSI layer?
 4
 2
* 1
3

19)
 
A device receives an Ethernet frame and recognizes the MAC address as its own. What does the device do to the message to get to the encapsulated data?
 removes the IP header
 removes the TCP header
 passes data to the application layer
* removes the Ethernet header and trailer

20)
  
A client has decoded a frame and started the de-encapsulation process. In which order does the de-encapsulation process occur?
 1) remove IP header
2) remove Ethernet header and trailer
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application

 1) add TCP header to data
2) add an IP header
3) add frame header and trailer
4) encode the frame into bits

* 1) remove Ethernet header and trailer
2) remove IP header
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application

 1) add TCP header to data
2) add Ethernet header and trailer
3) add an IP header
4) encode the frame into bits

21)
  
What is an advantage of the use of layers in the OSI reference model?
 It breaks network communications into larger parts.
 It increases complexity.
* It prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers.
 It requires the use of single-vendor equipment for hardware and software communications.

22)
 
What is the correct order of the layers of the OSI reference model, starting at the lowest layer and working up the model?
 data link, physical, transport, network, presentation, session, application
 physical, data link, network, session, transport, presentation, application
 physical, data link, network, transport, presentation, session, application
* physical, data link, network, transport, session, presentation, application
 application, session, presentation, transport, data link, network, physical

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Discovery 1 - Module 7

1)  
Why is IEEE 802.11 wireless technology able to transmit further distances than Bluetooth technology?
 transmits at much lower frequencies
* has higher power output
transmits at much higher frequencies
 uses better encryption methods

2)
 
What are three advantages of wireless over wired technology? (Choose three.)
 more secure
 longer range
* anytime, anywhere connectivity
* easy and inexpensive to install
 ease of using licensed air space
* ease of adding additional devices

3)
 
What are two benefits of wireless networking over wired networking? (Choose two.)
 speed
 security
* mobility
* reduced installation time
allows users to share more resources
 not susceptible to interference from other devices

4)
 
A technician has been asked to provide wireless connectivity to the wired Ethernet network of a building. Which three factors affect the number of access points needed? (Choose three.)
* the size of the building
* the number of solid interior walls in the building
* the presence of microwave ovens in several offices
 the encryption method used on the wireless network
 the use of both Windows and Appletalk operating systems
 the use of shortwave or infrared on the AP

5)

Why is security so important in wireless networks?
 Wireless networks are typically slower than wired networks.
 Televisions and other devices can interfere with wireless signals.
* Wireless networks broadcast data over a medium that allows easy access.
Environmental factors such as thunderstorms can affect wireless networks.

6)
 
What does the Wi-Fi logo indicate about a wireless device?
 IEEE has approved the device.
* The device is interoperable with all other wireless standards.
* The device is interoperable with other devices of the same standard that also display the Wi-Fi logo.
The device is backwards compatible with all previous wireless standards.

7)
 
Which statement is true concerning wireless bridges?
* connects two networks with a wireless link
stationary device that connects to a wireless LAN
 allows wireless clients to connect to a wired network
 increases the strength of a wireless signal

8)
 
Which WLAN component is commonly referred to as an STA?
 cell
 antenna
access point
 wireless bridge
* wireless client

9)
 
Which statement is true concerning an ad-hoc wireless network?
* created by connecting wireless clients in a peer-to-peer network
created by connecting wireless clients to a single, centralized AP
 created by connecting multiple wireless basic service sets through a distribution system
 created by connecting wireless clients to a wired network using an ISR

10)

 Refer to the graphic. In the Wireless menu option of a Linksys integrated router, what does the Network Mode option Mixed mean?
 The router supports encryption and authentication.
 The router supports both wired and wireless connections.
* The router supports 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n devices.
The router supports connectivity through infrared and radio frequencies.

11)

 Refer to the graphic. In the Wireless menu of a Linksys integrated router, what configuration option allows the presence of the access point to be known to nearby clients?
 Network Mode
 Network Name (SSID)
 Radio Band
 Wide Channel
 Standard Channel
* SSID Broadcast

12)
  
Which two statements about a service set identifier (SSID) are true? (Choose two.)
* tells a wireless device to which WLAN it belongs
consists of a 32-character string and is not case sensitive
 responsible for determining the signal strength
* all wireless devices on the same WLAN must have the same SSID
used to encrypt data sent across the wireless network

13)
 
Which two statements characterize wireless network security? (Choose two.)
 Wireless networks offer the same security features as wired networks.
 Wardriving enhances security of wireless networks.
* With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must know the SSID to connect.
* Using the default IP address on an access point makes hacking easier.
An attacker needs physical access to at least one network device to launch an attack.

14)
 
What type of authentication does an access point use by default?
* Open
PSK
 WEP
 EAP

15)
 
Which statement is true about open authentication when it is enabled on an access point?
* requires no authentication
uses a 64-bit encryption algorithm
 requires the use of an authentication server
 requires a mutually agreed upon password

16)

What are two authentication methods that an access point could use? (Choose two.)
 WEP
 WPA
* EAP
 ASCII
* pre-shared keys

17)

What is the difference between using open authentication and pre-shared keys?
 Open authentication requires a password. Pre-shared keys do not require a password.
 Open authentication is used with wireless networks. Pre-shared keys are used with wired networks.
* Pre-shared keys require an encrypted secret word. Open authentication does not require a secret word.
Pre-shared keys require a MAC address programmed into the access point. Open authentication does not require this programming.

18)
 
What term describes the encoding of wireless data to prevent intercepted data from being read by a hacker?
 address filtering
 authentication
 broadcasting
* encryption
passphrase encoding

19)
 
What access-point feature allows a network administrator to define what type of data can enter the wireless network?
 encryption
 hacking block
* traffic filtering
MAC address filtering
 authentication

20)
 
What are the two WEP key lengths? (Choose two.)
 8 bit
 16 bit
 32 bit
* 64 bit
* 128 bit

21)
 
Complete the following sentence: WEP is used to ______ , and EAP is used to _____ wireless networks.
* encrypt; authenticate users on
filter traffic; select the operating frequency for
 identify the wireless network; compress data on
 create the smallest wireless network; limit the number of users on

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Discovery 1 - Module 8

1)

Identify three techniques used in social engineering. (Choose three.)
fishing
* vishing
* phishing
spamming
* pretexting
junk mailing

2)

During a pretexting event, how is a target typically contacted?
by e-mail
* by phone
in person
through another person

3)

While surfing the Internet, a user notices a box claiming a prize has been won. The user opens the box unaware that a program is being installed. An intruder now accesses the computer and retrieves personal information. What type of attack occurred?
worm
virus
* Trojan horse
denial of service

4)

What is a major characteristic of a Worm?
malicious software that copies itself into other executable programs
tricks users into running the infected software
a set of computer instructions that lies dormant until triggered by a specific event
* exploits vulnerabilities with the intent of propagating itself across a network

5)

A flood of packets with invalid source-IP addresses requests a connection on the network. The server busily tries to respond, resulting in valid requests being ignored. What type of attack occurred?
Trojan horse
brute force
ping of death
* SYN flooding

6)

What type of advertising is typically annoying and associated with a specific website that is being visited?
adware
* popups
spyware
tracking cookies

7)

What is a widely distributed approach to marketing on the Internet that advertises to as many individual users as possible via IM or e-mail?
brute force
* spam
spyware
tracking cookies

8)

What part of the security policy states what applications and usages are permitted or denied?
identification and authentication
remote access
* acceptable use
incident handling

9)

Which statement is true regarding anti-virus software?
Only e-mail programs need to be protected.
Only hard drives can be protected.
* Only after a virus is known can an anti-virus update be created for it.
Only computers with a direct Internet connection need it.

10)

Which two statements are true concerning anti-spam software? (Choose two.)
Anti-spam software can be loaded on either the end-user PC or the ISP server, but not both.
* When anti-spam software is loaded, legitimate e-mail may be classified as spam by mistake.
Installing anti-spam software should be a low priority on the network.
* Even with anti-spam software installed, users should be careful when opening e-mail attachments.
Virus warning e-mails that are not identified as spam via anti-spam software should be forwarded to other users immediately.

11)

What term is used to describe a dedicated hardware device that provides firewall services?
server-based
integrated
personal
* appliance-based

12)

Which acronym refers to an area of the network that is accessible by both internal, or trusted, as well as external, or untrusted, host devices?
SPI
* DMZ
ISR
ISP

13)

Which statement is true about port forwarding within a Linksys integrated router?
* Only external traffic that is destined for specific internal ports is permitted. All other traffic is denied.
Only external traffic that is destined for specific internal ports is denied. All other traffic is permitted.
Only internal traffic that is destined for specific external ports is permitted. All other traffic is denied.
Only internal traffic that is destined for specific external ports is denied. All other traffic is permitted.

14)

To which part of the network does the wireless access point part of a Linksys integrated router connect?
DMZ
external
* internal
a network other than the wired network

15)

Refer to the graphic. What is the purpose of the Internet Filter option of Filter IDENT (Port 113) on the Linksys integrated router?

 to require a user ID and password to access the router
* to prevent outside intruders from attacking the router through the Internet
to require a pre-programmed MAC address or IP address to access the router
to disable tracking of internal IP addresses so they cannot be spoofed by outside devices

16)

What statement is true about security configuration on a Linksys integrated router?
A DMZ is not supported.
The router is an example of a server-based firewall.
The router is an example of an application-based firewall.
* Internet access can be denied for specific days and times.

17)

What environment would be best suited for a two-firewall network design?
* a large corporate environment
a home environment with 10 or fewer hosts
a home environment that needs VPN access
a smaller, less congested business environment

18)

What is one function that is provided by a vulnerability analysis tool?
It provides various views of possible attack paths.
* It identifies missing security updates on a computer.
It identifies wireless weak points such as rogue access points.
It identifies all network devices on the network that do not have a firewall installed.
It identifies MAC and IP addresses that have not been authenticated on the network.

19)

Many best practices exist for wired and wireless network security. The list below has one item that is not a best practice. Identify the recommendation that is not a best practice for wired and wireless security.
Periodically update anti-virus software.
Be aware of normal network traffic patterns.
Periodically update the host operating system.
Activate the firewall on a Linksys integrated router.
Configure login permissions on the integrated router.
* Disable the wireless network when a vulnerability analysis is being performed.

20)

What best practice relates to wireless access point security?
activation of a popup stopper
* a change of the default IP address
an update in the antivirus software definitions
physically securing the cable between the access point and client

21)

Refer to the graphic. In the Linksys Security menu, what does the SPI Firewall Protection option Enabled provide?

 It prevents packets based on the application that makes the request.
It allows packets based on approved internal MAC or IP addresses.
* It requires that packets coming into the router be responses to internal host requests.
It translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address.

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Discovery 1 - Module 9

1)

What should a network administrator do first after receiving a call from a user who cannot access the company web server?
Reboot the web server.
Replace the NIC of the computer.
Ask the user to log off and log on again.
* Ask the user what URL has been typed and what error message displays.

2)

A customer called the cable company to report that the Internet connection is unstable. After trying several configuration changes, the technician decided to send the customer a new cable modem to try. What troubleshooting technique does this represent?
top-down
bottom-up
* substitution
trial-and-error
divide-and-conquer

3)

Only one workstation on a particular network cannot reach the Internet. What is the first troubleshooting step if the divide-and-conquer method is being used?
Check the NIC, and then check the cabling.
* Check the workstation TCP/IP configuration.
Test all cables, and then test layer by layer up the OSI model.
Attempt to Telnet, and then test layer by layer down the OSI model.

4)

Which two troubleshooting techniques are suitable for both home networks and large corporate networks? (Choose two.)
having a backup ISR
running network monitoring applications
* documenting the troubleshooting process
* keeping a record of system upgrades and software versions
keeping spare switches, routers, and other equipment available

5)

Identify two physical-layer network problems. (Choose two.)
* hardware failure
software configuration
devices not able to ping
* loose cable connections
device driver configuration

6)

Which ipconfig command requests IP configuration from a DHCP server?
ipconfig
ipconfig /all
* ipconfig /renew
ipconfig /release

7)

What command is used to determine the location of delay for a packet traversing the Internet?
ipconfig
netstat
nslookup
ping
* tracert

8)

What command is used to determine if a DNS server is providing name resolution?
ipconfig
netstat
* nslookup
tracert

9)

Which troubleshooting method begins by examining cable connections and wiring issues?
top-down
* bottom-up
substitution
divide-and-conquer

10)

A technician suspects that a Linksys integrated router is the source of a network problem. While troubleshooting, the technician notices a blinking green activity LED on some of the ports. What does this indicate?
Self-diagnostics have not completed.
The power supply is the source of the problem.
* The ports are operational and are receiving traffic.
The ports are operational, but no traffic is flowing.
There are no cables plugged into those ISR ports.
The ports have cables plugged in, but they are not functional.

11)

A PC is plugged into a switch and is unable to connect to the network. The UTP cable is suspected. What could be the problem?
A straight-through cable is being used
The connectors at both ends of the cable are RJ-45.
The RJ-45 connectors are crimped onto the cable jacket.
* A crossover cable is being used.

12)

Refer to the graphic. What configuration is incorrect in the network shown?

 The host IP address is incorrect.
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The host default gateway is incorrect.
* The wired connection is the wrong type of cable.
The Linksys integrated router does not support wireless.

13)

Which three settings must match on the client and access point for a wireless connection to occur? (Choose three.)
* SSID
* authentication
MD5 checksum
antennae type
* encryption key
MAC address filters

14)

A technician is troubleshooting a security breach on a new wireless access point. Which three configuration settings make it easy for hackers to gain access? (Choose three.)
configuring NAT
* broadcasting the SSID
* using open authentication
enabling MAC address filters
* using the default internal IP address
using DHCP to provide IP addresses

15)

Refer to the graphic. The wireless host cannot access the Internet, but the wired host can. What is the problem?

* The host WEP key is incorrect.
The host IP address is incorrect.
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The host default gateway is incorrect.
The integrated router internal IP address is incorrect.
The integrated router Internet IP address is incorrect.

16)

Refer to the graphic. What configuration is incorrect in the network shown?

* The host IP address is incorrect.
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The host default gateway is incorrect.
The wired connection is the wrong type of cable.
The Linksys integrated router does not support wireless.

17)

When acting as a DHCP server, what three types of information can an ISR provide to a client? (Choose three.)
physical address
MAC address
* default gateway
static IP address
* dynamic IP address
* DNS server address

18)

What two items could be checked to verify connectivity between the router and the ISP? (Choose two.)
* router status page
wireless card settings
router operating system version
local host operating system version
* connectivity status as indicated by LEDs

19)

A technician is unsuccessful in establishing a console session between a PC and a Linksys integrated router. Both devices have power, and a cable is connected between them. Which two troubleshooting steps could help to diagnose this problem? (Choose two.)
* Ensure the correct cable is used.
Ensure the SSID is the same on both devices.
Ensure both devices have the same IP address.
Ensure both devices have different subnet masks.
Ensure the encryption type on both devices match.
* Ensure the link status LED on the integrated router is lit.

20)

Network baselines should be performed in which two situations? (Choose two.)
* after the network is installed and running optimally
after a virus outbreak is discovered on the network
* after major changes are implemented on the network
after several computers are added to the network
at the end of the work week

21)

Typically, help desk personnel assist end users in which two tasks? (Choose two.)
* identifying when the problem occurred
determining if other users are currently logged into the computer
updating network diagrams and documentation
* implementing the solution to the problem
running a network baseline test
determining the cost of fixing the problem

22)

How does remote-access software help in the troubleshooting process?
Remote access uses a live chat feature.
Users have to be present so that they can view LEDs and change cables if necessary.
* Diagnostics can be run without a technician being present at the site.
FAQs can be consulted more easily.

23)

Which two items should be added to the documentation following a troubleshooting event? (Choose two.)
* final resolution
repetitive measures
number of people involved in the problem
accurate current network infrastructure diagrams
* results of successful and unsuccessful troubleshooting steps

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