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CISCO CCNA 1- Final Exam Answers
1. Which devices will create multiple collision domains in an Ethernet network? (Choose two.)
Switch router
2. How many collision domains are shown in the diagram?
Seven
3. Refer to the exhibit. The physical documentation shows a portion of the internetwork of the ABC Company. Which segments will be free of collisions?
segments 3, 4, and 5
4. Refer to the exhibit. Which diagram represents the network topology that an administrator would prefer, and why would the administrator prefer it?
Diagram A. It will better provide available bandwidth to the hosts.
5. After an unsuccessful ping to the local router, the technician decides to investigate the router. The technician observes that the lights and fan on the router are not operational. In which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely occurring?
Physical
6. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are shown?
Three
7. Refer to the exhibit. A network associate needs to establish an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B. However, the distance between the two hosts is further than the cabling standards allow. Which two devices that operate at the physical layer of the OSI can be used to allow Host A and Host B to communicate? (Choose two.)
hub
repeater
8. Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured on Host B to allow it to communicate with the file server? (Choose three.)
a unique host IP address
the subnet mask for the LAN
the default gateway address
9. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings Host B. What can be concluded about the source and destination addresses contained in the communication sent by Router R5 when it forwards the ping out the Ethernet interface to Host B? (Choose two.)
source MAC address: 5555.AAAA.6666
destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
10. What is the correct number of usable subnetworks and hosts for the IP network address 192.168.35.0 subnetted with a /28 mask?
14 networks / 14 hosts
11. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to create a subnet for the point-to-point connection between the two routers. Which subnetwork mask would provide enough addresses for the point-to-point link with the least number of wasted addresses?
255.255.255.252
12. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?
IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17
13. Two peer hosts are exchanging data using TFTP. During the current session, a datagram fails to arrive at the destination. Which statement is true regarding the retransmission of the datagram?
Datagram retransmission is controlled by the application.
14. Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)
TFTP
DNS
15. When using Category 5 UTP cable, which RJ-45 pin pairs are used to exchange data between hosts on an Ethernet network?
1 and 2; 3 and 6
16. In the exhibit, the connections between the devices are labeled A, B, C, D, and E. For each connection, what is the correct UTP cable to use?
A=rollover, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
17. Which cable diagram displays the end to end pinout for a crossover cable used with Cisco devices?
Cable C
18. Which subnet masks could be used when subnetting a Class B IP address? (Choose two.)
255.255.255.240
255.255.192.0
19. Which physical network topology is easy to monitor and troubleshoot, easy to add new devices to as the network expands, but subject to complete failure when a central hub or switch ceases to work?
Star
20. A computer technician is asked to make a network cable. One end of the cable is pinned as a 568A and the other as a 568B. For what purposes can this cable be used? (Choose two.)
to connect a switch to a switch
to connect a hub to a switch
21. Refer to the exhibit. Workstation 1 pings the Fa0/1 interface of Router 1. Which MAC address will workstation 1 obtain during the ARP request for this communication?
00-08-A3-B6-CE-02
22. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured a network after subnetting the network number 192.168.0.0/28. Workstation 1 is not able to communicate with Workstation 2. What is the cause of this loss in communications?
Workstation 1 is not on the same network that the Router 1 LAN interface is on.
23. Which network device creates the highest amount of latency?
Router
24. An Ethernet host receives a frame, calculates the FCS, and compares the calculated FCS to the FCS received in the frame. The host finds that the two FCS values do not match. What action will be taken by the host?
The host discards the frame.
25. A user initiates three simultaneous FTP connections from the local host to the same FTP server. Which OSI layer is responsible for establishing and managing these different FTP connections?
Session
26. A network administrator has installed a 24 port switch and connected 10 computers with 10/100 NICs. If the NICs are operating at 100 Mbps, how much bandwidth is available for each computer to receive data?
100 Mbps
27. Based on the graphic above, which of the following occurs as each host system comes on line in the topology?
The switch adds MAC address to the bridge table as each host sends a frame.
28. Consider the networks shown in the exhibit. Host A is sending packets to host B. Which layer of the OSI model is being used when the router is making the calculated decision to determine which interface to send the packet out?
Network
29. Why would a company install a switch instead of a hub when building or expanding a corporate network?
A switch provides more bandwidth by sending frames only out the port to which the destination device is attached. A hub sends the frame out all ports except the source port.
30. Refer to the exhibit. The hub and the switch are operating using factory default settings. Which hosts will receive the frame if host A transmits a broadcast frame?
Workstations B, C, D, E, and the router will receive the data.
31. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of Ethernet cable is represented?
straight-through cable
32. The ping command can be used to test connectivity between hosts. Which OSI model layers are verified by this test?
Layers 1, 2 and 3
33. A technician is testing connectivity between the devices using the ping command. Pings between Host B and Host A were successful. The technician could not ping the R3 address 172.16.3.2 from Host A. The technician issued ipconfig from Host A and saw the information displayed in the exhibit. What is the most likely problem?
The default gateway of Host A is incorrect.
34. Why do vendors utilize the OSI model when designing networking products?
It ensures greater compatibility and interoperability with equipment from different vendors.
35. A router determines the path to deliver a packet. What layer of the OSI model does this fact represent?
Network
36. How does a switch learn the addresses of hosts connected to its ports?
The switch reads the source MAC address on incoming frames and records it in CAM.
37. Refer to the exhibit. The connections in the exhibit are labeled A through E. Which of these indicate LAN links? (Choose two.)
link A
link E
38. A large company has a network that is constantly changing. The routing tables in the routers need to be adjusted to reflect the changes in the routing paths. What type of routing would the network administrator implement?
dynamic routing protocols
39. A network administrator has added a new switch to the network. The new switch connects to an existing switch that is already installed. Which UTP cable correctly connects the new switch to the existing switch?
crossover
40. Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician has a task of terminating CAT 5 UTP cables. The network administrator visually examined the cables the technician terminated. Some of the cables have connectors as shown in the exhibit. What should the network administrator explain to the technician about the cables?
The cable in Graphic A will produce more crosstalk.
41. Refer to the exhibit. What is the order of the TCP/IP Protocol Data Units as data is moved as indicated through the OSI model?
bits, frames, packets, segments, data
42. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of UTP cable should be used to connect Host A to Switch1?
straight-through
43. Which technologies are considered to be LAN technologies? (Choose two.)
Token Ring
Ethernet
44. Refer to the topology in the graphic. Which characteristic does this type of topology possess? Communication continues in the event of a break in any one connection.
45. Which characteristics are common to both UDP and TCP? (Choose two.)
uses port numbers
classified as a transport layer protocol
46. A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
172.16.192.160
47. Which type of address is 192.168.170.112/28?
subnetwork address
48. What is the decimal representation of the binary number 11111000?
248
49. What are important characteristics to consider when purchasing a network interface card? (Choose two.)
media used on the network system
bus used on the computer
50. Which of the following statements are correct about CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
It is a media access method used in LANs.
When a device needs to transmit, it checks to see if the media is available.
Only one device can successfully transmit at a time.
===============================================================
CCNA 3.1 Semester 1 Final Exam Result Correct 100% (Option 2)
1 Which devices segment collision domains? (Choose two.)
transceiver
* router
* switch
hub
media
2. Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains are present in the topology?
3
5
6
* 7
8
9
3. Refer to the exhibit. An instructor in the network class has given the students the network diagram and asks the students to select the appropriate network devices. The goals are to provide a collision-free LAN environment and to provide Internet connectivity. What is the correct design?
Replace Box 1 with a hub and Box 2 with a router.
Replace Box 1 with a router and Box 2 with a bridge.
* Replace Box 1 with a Layer 2 switch and Box 2 with a router.
Replace Box 1 with a router and Box 2 with a Layer 2 switch.
Replace Box 1 with a bridge and Box 2 with a Layer 2 switch.
4. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator attempts to increase the available bandwidth for workstation A by setting the NIC to full-duplex mode. After the configuration is changed, there are increased collisions and errors occurring. Why is this occurring in the network?
* The NIC is no longer detecting collisions.
The switch will not support full-duplex mode.
The hub will be continually producing a jam signal.
The cabling will not support bidirectional transmissions.
5. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is testing a connectivity issue in the network. The administrator discovers that host A cannot communicate with host B, host C, or RouterA. A ping command on host A to 127.0.0.1 succeeds. The NIC link indicator on host A is illuminated. Temporarily, the administrator removes the cable from host A and uses the LAN cable from host B to connect from host A to port 1 on the switch. While using the substitute cable, host A can communicate with host C and RouterA. At which layer of the OSI model was the problem occurring?
session
transport
network
data link
* physical
6. How many broadcast domains are shown in the diagram?
* three
four
five
six
seven
eight
7. A collision has occurred on an Ethernet network. Which three statements explain the CSMA/CD process? (Choose three.)
* After the jam signal, all transmission stops for a random period.
When the collision is detected, the hosts stop transmission immediately.
When the collision is detected, the hosts stop transmission after eight microseconds.
When the backoff period expires, the hosts involved in the collision have priority to transmit.
* When the backoff period expires, each host checks to see whether the networking media is idle and then attempts to transmit.
* When the collision is detected, the hosts continue to transmit using a jam pattern for a short time to ensure that all hosts detect the collision.
8. Which of the following devices extend a collision domain? (Choose two.)
switch
* hub
bridge
router
* repeater
9. What should a network administrator consider when migrating to Gigabit Ethernet architecture from Fast Ethernet? (Choose three.)
* Existing NICs might need to be upgraded.
* Existing switches might need to be upgraded.
Existing NICs must support half-duplex mode.
Existing UTP wiring must be replaced with fiber.
* Existing UTP must be tested for CAT 5e compatibility.
Existing network topology must support shared media.
10. Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured on Host B to allow it to communicate with the Host C? (Choose three.)
the MAC address of RTA router interface connected to Switch 1
* a unique host IP address
the IP address of Switch 1
* the default gateway address
the MAC address of Host C
* the subnet mask for the LAN
11. Which binary number is a representation of the decimal number 248?
11101000
11110100
* 11111000
11111010
12. Which type of address is 223.168.17.167/29?
host address
multicast address
* broadcast address
subnetwork address
13. Workstation A sends data to workstation B. What will have to be altered as the data passes through the router? (Choose two.)
* Layer 1 bit pattern
* Layer 2 frames
Layer 3 packets
Layer 4 segments
Layer 5 -7 data
14. Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255?
172.16.128.0 255.255.255.224
172.16.128.0 255.255.0.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.192.0
* 172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.255.192
15. What is the correct number of usable subnetworks and hosts for the IP network address 192.168.99.0 subnetted with a /29 mask?
6 networks / 32 hosts
14 networks / 14 hosts
* 30 networks / 6 hosts
62 networks / 2 hosts
16. Refer to the exhibit. The internetwork in the exhibit has been assigned the IP address 172.20.0.0. What would be the appropriate subnet mask to maximize the number of networks available for future growth?
255.255.224.0
255.255.240.0
255.255.248.0
* 255.255.252.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.255.0
17. A NIC of a computer has been assigned an IP address of 172.31.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
172.31.0.0
172.31.160.0
172.31.192.0
172.31.248.0
* 172.31.192.160
172.31.192.248
18. What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)
exchanges datagrams unreliably
is used to send IP error messages
* forces the retransmission of unacknowledged packets
* creates a virtual session between end-user applications
carries the IP address of the destination host in the TCP header
* is responsible for breaking messages into segments and reassembling them at their destination
19. A network user is using the FTP protocol to transfer data from the local host to an FTP server. The local host is also using the SNMP protocol to report the system status to the network management system. Which statement describes the communication from the host?
FTP and SNMP will use the same port number.
* FTP uses TCP to establish a session before any data is transferred.
The UDP session will reorder the SNMP data as it is received by the network management system.
The TCP protocol for the FTP transfer will use a random destination port number to the FTP server.
20. Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)
UDP
* FTP
IP
* SMTP
TCP
21. Which technologies are considered to be WAN technologies? (Choose two.)
Ethernet
* DSL
Token Ring
* Frame Relay
FDDI
22. Refer to the exhibit. What is the order of the TCP/IP Protocol Data Units as data is moved as indicated through the OSI model?
data, segments, frames, packets, bits
data, packets, segments, frames, bits
* data, segments, packets, frames, bits
data, packets, frames, segments, bits
23. Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician has a task of terminating CAT 5 UTP cables. The network administrator visually examined the cables the technician terminated. Some of the cables have connectors as shown in the exhibit. What should the network administrator explain to the technician about the cables?
Both cables are acceptable.
* The cable in Graphic A will produce more crosstalk.
The cable in Graphic A should be used in the more critical network segments.
The cable in Graphic A is preferred because it will be easier to crimp the connector.
24. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of UTP cable should be used to connect Switch1 to Switch2?
rollover
console
* crossover
straight-through
25. When using Category 5 UTP cable, which RJ-45 pin pairs are used to exchange data between hosts on an Ethernet network?
1 and 2; 4 and 5
* 1 and 2; 3 and 6
3 and 6; 7 and 8
4 and 5; 7 and 8
26. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of cabling should be used at each of the connection points shown?
A-crossoverB- straight-throughC-straight-throughD-fiberE-straight-through
A-crossoverB-crossoverC-straight-throughD-fiberE-crossover
* A-straight-throughB-crossoverC-straight-throughD-fiberE-straight-through
A-fiberB-crossoverC-straight-throughD-crossoverE-straight-through
A-straight-throughB-crossoverC-crossoverD-fiberE-straight-through
A-crossoverB-crossoverC-straight-throughD-fiberE-straight-through
27. Refer to the exhibit. What type of cable connects the two routers together without any intermediary device?
console
rollover
* crossover
straight-through
28. Which cable diagram displays the end to end pinout for a console cable used with Cisco devices?
Cable A
* Cable B
Cable C
Cable D
29. Which subnet masks would be valid for a subnetted Class B address? (Choose two.)
255.0.0.0
255.254.0.0
255.224.0.0
255.255.0.0
* 255.255.252.0
* 255.255.255.192
30. What type of routing is it when the network administrator manually configures a route?
* static
dynamic
interior
exterior
31. Which statement describes a star topology?
Each host in the network is connected to a backbone cable that is terminated at both ends.
* Each host is connected to a hub or switch, either of which acts as a central point for all network connections.
Each host is directly connected to two other hosts to form a long chain of hosts.
Each host has a connection to all other hosts in the network.
32. Refer to the exhibit. The connections in the exhibit are labeled A through E. Which of these indicate WAN links? (Choose three.)
link A
* link B
* link C
* link D
link E
33. A technician needs to connect a FastEthernet port from a router to a FastEthernet port on a switch. The graphic shows the RJ-45 cable ends for a patch cable. What result can be expected if this cable is used for the link?
* The cable will be able to pass traffic between the devices.
The cable has reversed-pairs, which will degrade the signal quality.
The cable has split-pairs, which will increase crosstalk and create an unreliable link.
The cable has all the wires reversed, which will prevent the link lights from indicating that there is link.
34. Refer to the received frame in the exhibit. In what two ways is the information from the received frame used by a switch? (Choose two.)
192.168.10.5 is used to create an ARP request.
192.168.10.5 is used to build the forwarding table.
1234.5678.1abc is stripped from the frame header.
* 192.168.10.11 is left intact as the frame is forwarded.
The switch compares 192.168.10.11 to the addresses in the routing table to make the forwarding decision.
* To make the forwarding decision, the switch looks in its switch table for address aaaa.bbbb.cccc.
35. Which layer of the OSI model defines the process of adding the source and destination IP address to a data packet?
transport
* network
data link
physical
36. Refer to the exhibit. Workstation 1 pings the Fa0/1 interface of Router 1. Which MAC address will workstation 1 obtain during the ARP request for this communication?
00-06-5B-88-DF-C3
00-B0-D0-7F-F7-46
00-0F-24-85-75-C0
00-0B-E5-64-BD-44
* 00-08-A3-B6-CE-02
00-08-A3-B6-CE-03
37. Refer to the exhibit. What device does Device X represent in the graphic to allow PC1 to ping PC4?
hub
* router
bridge
access point
Layer 2 switch
38. When the receiving workstation detects an error in the data it has received, it does not acknowledge receipt of the data. The source workstation retransmits the unacknowledged data. Which layer of the OSI model supports this process of retransmission?
network
application
session
* transport
39. A company has the following addressing scheme requirements: -currently has 25 subnets -uses a Class B IP address -has a maximum of 300 computers on any network segment -needs to leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnetWhat subnet mask is appropriate to use in this company?
255.255.240.0
255.255.248.0
* 255.255.254.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.248
40. What can be verified by successfully pinging the reserved loopback address on a host?
Connectivity exists between two hosts on the LAN.
* The TCP/IP stack of the local host is installed correctly.
A connection exists between a host and the default gateway.
The route a packet takes from the local host to a remote host is valid.
41. Refer to the exhibit. A company needs to attach workstation E at a point 150 meters from an existing hub. What device should be placed at location D to allow the new host to connect to the network with the least amount of latency?
router
switch
bridge
* repeater
42. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
coax cable
rollover cable
* crossover cable
straight-through cable
43. A simplified CAM table for Switch1 is shown in the exhibit. If host A sends a frame with a destination MAC address of 66C, how does the switch process this frame?
The switch drops the frame.
The switch sends the frame out port 3.
The switch sends the frame out ports 1, 2, and 4.
* The switch sends the frame out ports 2, 3, and 4.
The switch sends the frame out ports 1, 2, 3, and 4.
44. Which of the following increases the potential for a collision to occur?
the use of an active hub instead of an intelligent hub
the use of an intelligent hub instead of an active hub
a reduction in the number of devices attached to the hub
* an increase in the number of devices attached to the hub
2 points for Option 4
45. Refer to the exhibit. Host A has been added to the network. However, host A cannot communicate with the server B or the Internet. All cables have been tested and are functioning to standards. At which layer of the OSI model is this problem occurring?
Layer 1
Layer 2
* Layer 3
Layer 4
46. A workstation is browsing a web server. What will be the partial contents of the segment sent from the workstation to the web server?
* a
47. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the highlighted address?
* It allows the NIC to communicate with other devices on the same network.
It identifies which part of the IP address is to be considered the network portion.
It provides an address to which all packets that do not have a specific route are sent.
It uniquely identifies the NIC to the free token that is passed on the Ethernet network.
48. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is being manually configured for connectivity to the LAN. Which two addressing scheme combinations are possible configurations that can be applied to the host for connectivity? (Choose two.)
Address - 192.168.1.14 Gateway - 192.168.1.33
Address - 192.168.1.45 Gateway - 192.168.1.33
Address - 192.168.1.32 Gateway - 192.168.1.33
* Address - 192.168.1.82 Gateway - 192.168.1.65
Address - 192.168.1.63 Gateway - 192.168.1.65
* Address - 192.168.1.70 Gateway - 192.168.1.65
49. A user initiates three simultaneous FTP connections from the local host to the same FTP server. Which OSI layer is responsible for establishing and managing these different FTP connections?
application
* session
transport
network
data link
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Switch router
2. How many collision domains are shown in the diagram?
Seven
3. Refer to the exhibit. The physical documentation shows a portion of the internetwork of the ABC Company. Which segments will be free of collisions?
segments 3, 4, and 5
4. Refer to the exhibit. Which diagram represents the network topology that an administrator would prefer, and why would the administrator prefer it?
Diagram A. It will better provide available bandwidth to the hosts.
5. After an unsuccessful ping to the local router, the technician decides to investigate the router. The technician observes that the lights and fan on the router are not operational. In which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely occurring?
Physical
6. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are shown?
Three
7. Refer to the exhibit. A network associate needs to establish an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B. However, the distance between the two hosts is further than the cabling standards allow. Which two devices that operate at the physical layer of the OSI can be used to allow Host A and Host B to communicate? (Choose two.)
hub
repeater
8. Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured on Host B to allow it to communicate with the file server? (Choose three.)
a unique host IP address
the subnet mask for the LAN
the default gateway address
9. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings Host B. What can be concluded about the source and destination addresses contained in the communication sent by Router R5 when it forwards the ping out the Ethernet interface to Host B? (Choose two.)
source MAC address: 5555.AAAA.6666
destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
10. What is the correct number of usable subnetworks and hosts for the IP network address 192.168.35.0 subnetted with a /28 mask?
14 networks / 14 hosts
11. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to create a subnet for the point-to-point connection between the two routers. Which subnetwork mask would provide enough addresses for the point-to-point link with the least number of wasted addresses?
255.255.255.252
12. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?
IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17
13. Two peer hosts are exchanging data using TFTP. During the current session, a datagram fails to arrive at the destination. Which statement is true regarding the retransmission of the datagram?
Datagram retransmission is controlled by the application.
14. Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)
TFTP
DNS
15. When using Category 5 UTP cable, which RJ-45 pin pairs are used to exchange data between hosts on an Ethernet network?
1 and 2; 3 and 6
16. In the exhibit, the connections between the devices are labeled A, B, C, D, and E. For each connection, what is the correct UTP cable to use?
A=rollover, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
17. Which cable diagram displays the end to end pinout for a crossover cable used with Cisco devices?
Cable C
18. Which subnet masks could be used when subnetting a Class B IP address? (Choose two.)
255.255.255.240
255.255.192.0
19. Which physical network topology is easy to monitor and troubleshoot, easy to add new devices to as the network expands, but subject to complete failure when a central hub or switch ceases to work?
Star
20. A computer technician is asked to make a network cable. One end of the cable is pinned as a 568A and the other as a 568B. For what purposes can this cable be used? (Choose two.)
to connect a switch to a switch
to connect a hub to a switch
21. Refer to the exhibit. Workstation 1 pings the Fa0/1 interface of Router 1. Which MAC address will workstation 1 obtain during the ARP request for this communication?
00-08-A3-B6-CE-02
22. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured a network after subnetting the network number 192.168.0.0/28. Workstation 1 is not able to communicate with Workstation 2. What is the cause of this loss in communications?
Workstation 1 is not on the same network that the Router 1 LAN interface is on.
23. Which network device creates the highest amount of latency?
Router
24. An Ethernet host receives a frame, calculates the FCS, and compares the calculated FCS to the FCS received in the frame. The host finds that the two FCS values do not match. What action will be taken by the host?
The host discards the frame.
25. A user initiates three simultaneous FTP connections from the local host to the same FTP server. Which OSI layer is responsible for establishing and managing these different FTP connections?
Session
26. A network administrator has installed a 24 port switch and connected 10 computers with 10/100 NICs. If the NICs are operating at 100 Mbps, how much bandwidth is available for each computer to receive data?
100 Mbps
27. Based on the graphic above, which of the following occurs as each host system comes on line in the topology?
The switch adds MAC address to the bridge table as each host sends a frame.
28. Consider the networks shown in the exhibit. Host A is sending packets to host B. Which layer of the OSI model is being used when the router is making the calculated decision to determine which interface to send the packet out?
Network
29. Why would a company install a switch instead of a hub when building or expanding a corporate network?
A switch provides more bandwidth by sending frames only out the port to which the destination device is attached. A hub sends the frame out all ports except the source port.
30. Refer to the exhibit. The hub and the switch are operating using factory default settings. Which hosts will receive the frame if host A transmits a broadcast frame?
Workstations B, C, D, E, and the router will receive the data.
31. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of Ethernet cable is represented?
straight-through cable
32. The ping command can be used to test connectivity between hosts. Which OSI model layers are verified by this test?
Layers 1, 2 and 3
33. A technician is testing connectivity between the devices using the ping command. Pings between Host B and Host A were successful. The technician could not ping the R3 address 172.16.3.2 from Host A. The technician issued ipconfig from Host A and saw the information displayed in the exhibit. What is the most likely problem?
The default gateway of Host A is incorrect.
34. Why do vendors utilize the OSI model when designing networking products?
It ensures greater compatibility and interoperability with equipment from different vendors.
35. A router determines the path to deliver a packet. What layer of the OSI model does this fact represent?
Network
36. How does a switch learn the addresses of hosts connected to its ports?
The switch reads the source MAC address on incoming frames and records it in CAM.
37. Refer to the exhibit. The connections in the exhibit are labeled A through E. Which of these indicate LAN links? (Choose two.)
link A
link E
38. A large company has a network that is constantly changing. The routing tables in the routers need to be adjusted to reflect the changes in the routing paths. What type of routing would the network administrator implement?
dynamic routing protocols
39. A network administrator has added a new switch to the network. The new switch connects to an existing switch that is already installed. Which UTP cable correctly connects the new switch to the existing switch?
crossover
40. Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician has a task of terminating CAT 5 UTP cables. The network administrator visually examined the cables the technician terminated. Some of the cables have connectors as shown in the exhibit. What should the network administrator explain to the technician about the cables?
The cable in Graphic A will produce more crosstalk.
41. Refer to the exhibit. What is the order of the TCP/IP Protocol Data Units as data is moved as indicated through the OSI model?
bits, frames, packets, segments, data
42. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of UTP cable should be used to connect Host A to Switch1?
straight-through
43. Which technologies are considered to be LAN technologies? (Choose two.)
Token Ring
Ethernet
44. Refer to the topology in the graphic. Which characteristic does this type of topology possess? Communication continues in the event of a break in any one connection.
45. Which characteristics are common to both UDP and TCP? (Choose two.)
uses port numbers
classified as a transport layer protocol
46. A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
172.16.192.160
47. Which type of address is 192.168.170.112/28?
subnetwork address
48. What is the decimal representation of the binary number 11111000?
248
49. What are important characteristics to consider when purchasing a network interface card? (Choose two.)
media used on the network system
bus used on the computer
50. Which of the following statements are correct about CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
It is a media access method used in LANs.
When a device needs to transmit, it checks to see if the media is available.
Only one device can successfully transmit at a time.
===============================================================
CCNA 3.1 Semester 1 Final Exam Result Correct 100% (Option 2)
1 Which devices segment collision domains? (Choose two.)
transceiver
* router
* switch
hub
media
2. Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains are present in the topology?
3
5
6
* 7
8
9
3. Refer to the exhibit. An instructor in the network class has given the students the network diagram and asks the students to select the appropriate network devices. The goals are to provide a collision-free LAN environment and to provide Internet connectivity. What is the correct design?
Replace Box 1 with a hub and Box 2 with a router.
Replace Box 1 with a router and Box 2 with a bridge.
* Replace Box 1 with a Layer 2 switch and Box 2 with a router.
Replace Box 1 with a router and Box 2 with a Layer 2 switch.
Replace Box 1 with a bridge and Box 2 with a Layer 2 switch.
4. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator attempts to increase the available bandwidth for workstation A by setting the NIC to full-duplex mode. After the configuration is changed, there are increased collisions and errors occurring. Why is this occurring in the network?
* The NIC is no longer detecting collisions.
The switch will not support full-duplex mode.
The hub will be continually producing a jam signal.
The cabling will not support bidirectional transmissions.
5. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is testing a connectivity issue in the network. The administrator discovers that host A cannot communicate with host B, host C, or RouterA. A ping command on host A to 127.0.0.1 succeeds. The NIC link indicator on host A is illuminated. Temporarily, the administrator removes the cable from host A and uses the LAN cable from host B to connect from host A to port 1 on the switch. While using the substitute cable, host A can communicate with host C and RouterA. At which layer of the OSI model was the problem occurring?
session
transport
network
data link
* physical
6. How many broadcast domains are shown in the diagram?
* three
four
five
six
seven
eight
7. A collision has occurred on an Ethernet network. Which three statements explain the CSMA/CD process? (Choose three.)
* After the jam signal, all transmission stops for a random period.
When the collision is detected, the hosts stop transmission immediately.
When the collision is detected, the hosts stop transmission after eight microseconds.
When the backoff period expires, the hosts involved in the collision have priority to transmit.
* When the backoff period expires, each host checks to see whether the networking media is idle and then attempts to transmit.
* When the collision is detected, the hosts continue to transmit using a jam pattern for a short time to ensure that all hosts detect the collision.
8. Which of the following devices extend a collision domain? (Choose two.)
switch
* hub
bridge
router
* repeater
9. What should a network administrator consider when migrating to Gigabit Ethernet architecture from Fast Ethernet? (Choose three.)
* Existing NICs might need to be upgraded.
* Existing switches might need to be upgraded.
Existing NICs must support half-duplex mode.
Existing UTP wiring must be replaced with fiber.
* Existing UTP must be tested for CAT 5e compatibility.
Existing network topology must support shared media.
10. Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured on Host B to allow it to communicate with the Host C? (Choose three.)
the MAC address of RTA router interface connected to Switch 1
* a unique host IP address
the IP address of Switch 1
* the default gateway address
the MAC address of Host C
* the subnet mask for the LAN
11. Which binary number is a representation of the decimal number 248?
11101000
11110100
* 11111000
11111010
12. Which type of address is 223.168.17.167/29?
host address
multicast address
* broadcast address
subnetwork address
13. Workstation A sends data to workstation B. What will have to be altered as the data passes through the router? (Choose two.)
* Layer 1 bit pattern
* Layer 2 frames
Layer 3 packets
Layer 4 segments
Layer 5 -7 data
14. Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255?
172.16.128.0 255.255.255.224
172.16.128.0 255.255.0.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.192.0
* 172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.255.192
15. What is the correct number of usable subnetworks and hosts for the IP network address 192.168.99.0 subnetted with a /29 mask?
6 networks / 32 hosts
14 networks / 14 hosts
* 30 networks / 6 hosts
62 networks / 2 hosts
16. Refer to the exhibit. The internetwork in the exhibit has been assigned the IP address 172.20.0.0. What would be the appropriate subnet mask to maximize the number of networks available for future growth?
255.255.224.0
255.255.240.0
255.255.248.0
* 255.255.252.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.255.0
17. A NIC of a computer has been assigned an IP address of 172.31.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
172.31.0.0
172.31.160.0
172.31.192.0
172.31.248.0
* 172.31.192.160
172.31.192.248
18. What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)
exchanges datagrams unreliably
is used to send IP error messages
* forces the retransmission of unacknowledged packets
* creates a virtual session between end-user applications
carries the IP address of the destination host in the TCP header
* is responsible for breaking messages into segments and reassembling them at their destination
19. A network user is using the FTP protocol to transfer data from the local host to an FTP server. The local host is also using the SNMP protocol to report the system status to the network management system. Which statement describes the communication from the host?
FTP and SNMP will use the same port number.
* FTP uses TCP to establish a session before any data is transferred.
The UDP session will reorder the SNMP data as it is received by the network management system.
The TCP protocol for the FTP transfer will use a random destination port number to the FTP server.
20. Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)
UDP
* FTP
IP
* SMTP
TCP
21. Which technologies are considered to be WAN technologies? (Choose two.)
Ethernet
* DSL
Token Ring
* Frame Relay
FDDI
22. Refer to the exhibit. What is the order of the TCP/IP Protocol Data Units as data is moved as indicated through the OSI model?
data, segments, frames, packets, bits
data, packets, segments, frames, bits
* data, segments, packets, frames, bits
data, packets, frames, segments, bits
23. Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician has a task of terminating CAT 5 UTP cables. The network administrator visually examined the cables the technician terminated. Some of the cables have connectors as shown in the exhibit. What should the network administrator explain to the technician about the cables?
Both cables are acceptable.
* The cable in Graphic A will produce more crosstalk.
The cable in Graphic A should be used in the more critical network segments.
The cable in Graphic A is preferred because it will be easier to crimp the connector.
24. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of UTP cable should be used to connect Switch1 to Switch2?
rollover
console
* crossover
straight-through
25. When using Category 5 UTP cable, which RJ-45 pin pairs are used to exchange data between hosts on an Ethernet network?
1 and 2; 4 and 5
* 1 and 2; 3 and 6
3 and 6; 7 and 8
4 and 5; 7 and 8
26. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of cabling should be used at each of the connection points shown?
A-crossoverB- straight-throughC-straight-throughD-fiberE-straight-through
A-crossoverB-crossoverC-straight-throughD-fiberE-crossover
* A-straight-throughB-crossoverC-straight-throughD-fiberE-straight-through
A-fiberB-crossoverC-straight-throughD-crossoverE-straight-through
A-straight-throughB-crossoverC-crossoverD-fiberE-straight-through
A-crossoverB-crossoverC-straight-throughD-fiberE-straight-through
27. Refer to the exhibit. What type of cable connects the two routers together without any intermediary device?
console
rollover
* crossover
straight-through
28. Which cable diagram displays the end to end pinout for a console cable used with Cisco devices?
Cable A
* Cable B
Cable C
Cable D
29. Which subnet masks would be valid for a subnetted Class B address? (Choose two.)
255.0.0.0
255.254.0.0
255.224.0.0
255.255.0.0
* 255.255.252.0
* 255.255.255.192
30. What type of routing is it when the network administrator manually configures a route?
* static
dynamic
interior
exterior
31. Which statement describes a star topology?
Each host in the network is connected to a backbone cable that is terminated at both ends.
* Each host is connected to a hub or switch, either of which acts as a central point for all network connections.
Each host is directly connected to two other hosts to form a long chain of hosts.
Each host has a connection to all other hosts in the network.
32. Refer to the exhibit. The connections in the exhibit are labeled A through E. Which of these indicate WAN links? (Choose three.)
link A
* link B
* link C
* link D
link E
33. A technician needs to connect a FastEthernet port from a router to a FastEthernet port on a switch. The graphic shows the RJ-45 cable ends for a patch cable. What result can be expected if this cable is used for the link?
* The cable will be able to pass traffic between the devices.
The cable has reversed-pairs, which will degrade the signal quality.
The cable has split-pairs, which will increase crosstalk and create an unreliable link.
The cable has all the wires reversed, which will prevent the link lights from indicating that there is link.
34. Refer to the received frame in the exhibit. In what two ways is the information from the received frame used by a switch? (Choose two.)
192.168.10.5 is used to create an ARP request.
192.168.10.5 is used to build the forwarding table.
1234.5678.1abc is stripped from the frame header.
* 192.168.10.11 is left intact as the frame is forwarded.
The switch compares 192.168.10.11 to the addresses in the routing table to make the forwarding decision.
* To make the forwarding decision, the switch looks in its switch table for address aaaa.bbbb.cccc.
35. Which layer of the OSI model defines the process of adding the source and destination IP address to a data packet?
transport
* network
data link
physical
36. Refer to the exhibit. Workstation 1 pings the Fa0/1 interface of Router 1. Which MAC address will workstation 1 obtain during the ARP request for this communication?
00-06-5B-88-DF-C3
00-B0-D0-7F-F7-46
00-0F-24-85-75-C0
00-0B-E5-64-BD-44
* 00-08-A3-B6-CE-02
00-08-A3-B6-CE-03
37. Refer to the exhibit. What device does Device X represent in the graphic to allow PC1 to ping PC4?
hub
* router
bridge
access point
Layer 2 switch
38. When the receiving workstation detects an error in the data it has received, it does not acknowledge receipt of the data. The source workstation retransmits the unacknowledged data. Which layer of the OSI model supports this process of retransmission?
network
application
session
* transport
39. A company has the following addressing scheme requirements: -currently has 25 subnets -uses a Class B IP address -has a maximum of 300 computers on any network segment -needs to leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnetWhat subnet mask is appropriate to use in this company?
255.255.240.0
255.255.248.0
* 255.255.254.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.248
40. What can be verified by successfully pinging the reserved loopback address on a host?
Connectivity exists between two hosts on the LAN.
* The TCP/IP stack of the local host is installed correctly.
A connection exists between a host and the default gateway.
The route a packet takes from the local host to a remote host is valid.
41. Refer to the exhibit. A company needs to attach workstation E at a point 150 meters from an existing hub. What device should be placed at location D to allow the new host to connect to the network with the least amount of latency?
router
switch
bridge
* repeater
42. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
coax cable
rollover cable
* crossover cable
straight-through cable
43. A simplified CAM table for Switch1 is shown in the exhibit. If host A sends a frame with a destination MAC address of 66C, how does the switch process this frame?
The switch drops the frame.
The switch sends the frame out port 3.
The switch sends the frame out ports 1, 2, and 4.
* The switch sends the frame out ports 2, 3, and 4.
The switch sends the frame out ports 1, 2, 3, and 4.
44. Which of the following increases the potential for a collision to occur?
the use of an active hub instead of an intelligent hub
the use of an intelligent hub instead of an active hub
a reduction in the number of devices attached to the hub
* an increase in the number of devices attached to the hub
2 points for Option 4
45. Refer to the exhibit. Host A has been added to the network. However, host A cannot communicate with the server B or the Internet. All cables have been tested and are functioning to standards. At which layer of the OSI model is this problem occurring?
Layer 1
Layer 2
* Layer 3
Layer 4
46. A workstation is browsing a web server. What will be the partial contents of the segment sent from the workstation to the web server?
* a
47. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the highlighted address?
* It allows the NIC to communicate with other devices on the same network.
It identifies which part of the IP address is to be considered the network portion.
It provides an address to which all packets that do not have a specific route are sent.
It uniquely identifies the NIC to the free token that is passed on the Ethernet network.
48. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is being manually configured for connectivity to the LAN. Which two addressing scheme combinations are possible configurations that can be applied to the host for connectivity? (Choose two.)
Address - 192.168.1.14 Gateway - 192.168.1.33
Address - 192.168.1.45 Gateway - 192.168.1.33
Address - 192.168.1.32 Gateway - 192.168.1.33
* Address - 192.168.1.82 Gateway - 192.168.1.65
Address - 192.168.1.63 Gateway - 192.168.1.65
* Address - 192.168.1.70 Gateway - 192.168.1.65
49. A user initiates three simultaneous FTP connections from the local host to the same FTP server. Which OSI layer is responsible for establishing and managing these different FTP connections?
application
* session
transport
network
data link
CISCO CCNA 1 - Practice Final
Which of the following does 1000BASE-T use to accomplish gigabit speeds on Cat 5e cable?
the use of four conductors in full-duplex mode
the use of two multiplexed pairs of wires, simultaneously
the use of three pairs of wires for data and the fourth for stabilization and forward error correction
* the use of all four pairs of wires in full-duplex mode, simultaneously
When a network administrator applies the subnet mask 255.255.255.248 to a Class A address, for any given subnet, how many IP addresses are available to be assigned to devices?
1022
510
254
126
30
* 6
Which of the following is the Layer 4 PDU?
bit
frame
packet
* segment
In a new network installation, the network administrator has decided to use a medium that is not affected by electrical noise. Which cable type will best meet this standard?
coaxial
screened twisted pair
shielded twisted pair
unshielded twisted pair
* fiber optic
Which of the following describes the use of Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
resolve routing loops
eliminate Split Horizon errors
limit collisions
* resolve switching loops
What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal attenuation affects the data delivery?
* 100 meters
185 meters
300 meters
500 meters
The highest capacity Ethernet technologies should be implemented in which areas of a network? (Choose three.)
between workstation and backbone switch
between individual workstations
* between backbone switches
* between enterprise server and switch
* on aggregate access links
Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
85
90
* BA
A1
B3
1C
What is important to remember about the data link layer of the OSI model when considering Peer to Peer communication? (Choose three.)
It links data to the transport layer.
It encapsulates frames into packets.
* It provides a service to the network layer.
* It encapsulates the network layer information into a frame.
* Its header contains a physical address which is required to complete the data link functions.
It encodes the data link frame into a pattern of 1s and 0s (bits) for transmission on the medium.
A small company has a class C network license and needs to create five usable subnets, each subnet capable of accommodating at least 20 hosts. Which of the following is the appropriate subnet mask?
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.192
* 255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
Which of the following is a term associated with replacing hubs with switches to increase the number of collision domains?
encapsulation
latency
* segmentation
layered model
broadcast domain
extended
How is a MAC address represented?
four groups of eight binary digits separated by a decimal point
four Base10 digits separated by a decimal point
six hexadecimal digits
* twelve hexadecimal digits
twenty-four Base10 digits
Which layer of the OSI model covers physical media?
* Layer 1
Layer 2
Layer 3
Layer 4
Layer 5
Layer 6
Which of the following wireless standards increased transmission capabilities to 11 Mbps?
802.11a
* 802.11b
802.11c
802.11d
Which of these workstation installation and setup tasks are concerned with network access layer functions? (Choose two.)
configuring the e-mail client
* installing NIC drivers
configuring IP network settings
* connecting the network cable
using FTP to download application software updates
What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
cross-over
straight-through
* rollover
patch cable
What is the recommended maximum number of workstations configured on a peer-to-peer network?
25
15
* 10
5
2
A company with a Class B license needs to have a minimum of 1,000 subnets with each subnet capable of accommodating 50 hosts. Which mask below is the appropriate one?
255.255.0.0
255.255.240.0
255.255.255.0
* 255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
If a network administrator needed to download files from a remote server, which protocols could the administrator use to remotely access those files? (Choose two.)
ASCII
* TFTP
IMAP
* FTP
UDP
"CompA" is trying to locate a new computer named "CompB" on the network. Which of the following does "CompA" broadcast to find the MAC address of "CompB"?
MAC request
* ARP request
ping
Telnet
proxy ARP
What type of wiring problem is depicted in this sample of a cable tester?
a fault
a short
* an open
a split
a good map
Which part of an IP address identifies a specific device on a network?
first two octets
third and fourth octets
network portion
* host portion
only the fourth octet
Which of the following are small, discrete components found within a personal computer? (Choose three.)
* transistor
microprocessor
power supply
* capacitor
* light emitting diode
hard disk
Which of the following are useable Class A IP addresses with a default subnet mask? (Choose three.)
127.0.39.1
* 111.9.28.30
* 123.1.2.132
128.50.38.2
* 105.1.34.1
0.23.92.3
Which of the following items are common to all 100BASE technologies? (Choose three.)
* frame format
media
connectors
* timing
* multi-part encoding
Select the necessary information that is required to compute the estimated time it would take to transfer data from one location to another. (Choose two.)
* file size
data format
network in use
type of medium
* bandwidth of the link
What does the "10" in 10Base2 indicate about this version of Ethernet?
The version uses Base10 numbering within the frames.
* The version operates at a transmission rate of 10 Mbps.
Frames can travel 10 meters unrepeated.
The maximum frame length is 10 octets.
During cable testing, which of the following are used to calculate the information carrying capacity of a data cable? (Choose two.)
bit speed
* attenuation
wire map
saturation limit
* analog bandwidth
Which combinations of charges will be repelled by electric force? (Choose two.)
neutral and neutral
neutral and positive
neutral and negative
* positive and positive
positive and negative
* negative and negative
Which of the following will test the internal loopback of a node?
ping 10.10.10.1
ping 192.168.1.1
* ping 127.0.0.1
ping 223.223.223.223
ping 255.255.255.255
Which of the following services is used to translate a web address into an IP address?
* DNS
WINS
DHCP
Telnet
An ISDN Basic Rate Interface (BRI) is composed of how many signaling channels?
* 1
2
3
4
John has been hired as the network administrator of a local company and has decided to add more hubs to the company's existing network. Which of the following has been caused by John's inexperience?
* collision domain extended
an increased number of collision domains
increased network performance
increased bandwidth
extended bandwidth
The accumulation of traffic from which of the following can cause a network condition called broadcast radiation? (Choose three.)
anonymous FTP servers
telnet sessions
* video over IP applications
NAS services
* ARP requests
* RIP updates
What device must be used between an AUI port of a networking device and the media to which it is being connected?
a transducer
a transmitter
* a transceiver
a transponder
a port replicator
What is established during a connection-oriented file transfer between computers? (Choose two.)
a temporary connection to establish authentication of hosts
* a connection used for ASCII or binary mode data transfer
a connection used to provide the tunnel through which file headers are transported
a command connection which allows the transfer of multiple commands directly to the remote server system
* a control connection between the client and server
Convert the Hexadecimal number A2 into its Base 10 equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
156
158
160
* 162
164
166
Using the data transfer calculation T=S/BW, how long would it take a 4MB file to be sent over a 1.5Mbps connection?
52.2 seconds
* 21.3 seconds
6.4 seconds
2 seconds
0.075 seconds
0.0375 seconds
Which protocol functions at the internet layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite?
File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)
Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
* Internet Protocol (IP)
User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
Simple Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP)
Which part of the URL http://www.awsb.ca/teacher gives the name of the domain?
www
http://
/teacher
* awsb.ca
What are features of the TCP/IP Transport layer? (Choose two.)
path determination
handles representation, encoding and dialog control
* uses TCP and UDP protocols
packet switching
* reliability, flow control and error correction
Which of the following protocols are used for e-mail transfer between clients and servers? (Choose three.)
TFTP
SNMP
* POP3
* SMTP
* IMAP4
postoffice
Which of the following are considered the best electrical conductors for use in data network communications? (Choose three.)
glass fibers
* copper
* gold
plastic
silicon
* silver
Which of the following are features of the Internet Protocol (IP)? (Choose two.)
* It is the most widely implemented global addressing scheme.
It allows two hosts to share a single address on a local area network.
* It is a hierarchical addressing scheme allowing addresses to be grouped.
It is only locally significant, used primarily on local area networks.
Which OSI layer encapsulates data into packets?
session
transport
* network
data link
Which type of institution does the domain suffix .org represent?
government
education
network
* non-profit
Which OSI layer defines the functions of a router?
physical
data link
* network
transport
session
For which of the following is Ethernet considered the standard? (Choose three.)
* inter-building connection
mid-length voice
video conferencing
* vertical wiring
* horizontal wiring
diagonal wiring
To make sure timing limitations are not violated when implementing a 10 Mbps Ethernet network involving hubs or repeaters, a technician should adhere to which rule?
the 4-5-3 rule
the 6-4-2 rule
the 3-4-5 rule
* the 5-4-3 rule
Which term describes an ARP response by a router on behalf of a requesting host?
ARP
RARP
* Proxy ARP
Proxy RARP
CISCO CCNA 2 - Practice Final
1
An administrator has made routing protocol changes to a router's configuration. To ensure that the changes are implemented, the active configuration is saved and the router is reloaded. After the router has initialized, the output on the screen displays "Would you like to enter the initial configuration dialog?[yes/no]:" Why did this dialog appear?
There was a POST failure.
The incorrect IOS loaded.
There was an error in the startup configuration file.
*The configuration register was set to ignore NVRAM.
2
What are the major characteristics of a wide area network? (Choose three.)
*connect devices separated by wide geographical areas
*includes technologies of FDDI and Ethernet
uses serial connections to access bandwidth
*common carriers are needed for connections
type of connection between a router and a switch
3
If the config-register on a router is set to 0x2102, where is the first place the router will look for boot system commands?
RAM
ROM
Flash
*NVRAM
4
Which of the following are valid static IP routes? (Choose three.)
RouterB(config)# ip route 192.168.5.0 255.255.255.0 S1
*RouterC(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 S1
*RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.2
RouterB(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.2
*RouterC(config)# ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.4.1
RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.1
5
Refer to the network and routing table entries shown in the graphic. What will happen when a packet destined for network 192.66.7.0 is received by Router A?
*It will be forwarded through interface S1.
It will be forwarded to the default route.
It will be directed toward the Internet.
It will be discarded.
6
A network administrator trying to deny Telnet traffic from the 192.5.5.0 network to the 201.100.11.0 network entered the commands shown in the graphic. When monitoring the network, the administrator noticed that Telnet packets were still passing between those networks. What is the cause?
The router ignored this type of traffic because it required a standard access list to be configured instead of an extended one.
The wrong port was configured for the ACL so Telnet traffic was still allowed.
*The access list has not been assigned to an interface.
The permit ip any any allowed all traffic to pass regardless of the other statements listed in this ACL.
7
Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?
*load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration
load bootstrap, apply configuration, load IOS
load IOS, load bootstrap, apply configuration, check hardware
check hardware, apply configuration, load bootstrap, load IOS
8
Which of the following would cause the "Message Of The Day" banner to appear? (Choose three.)
*telnetting into the router
initiating a debug session
configuring a router for the first time
using the Aux port to check the current configuration
*using the console port to check the current configuration
9
When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command?
*when the interface is functioning as a DTE device
when the interface timers have been cleared
when the connected DTE device is shut down
when the interface is functioning as a DCE device
10
The internetwork needs to communicate between the hosts connected to the E0 interface of the Utah router and hosts connected to the E0 interface of the Idaho router. The hosts should also have connectivity to the Internet. Which commands must be configured in order to enable this communication? (Choose three.)
Idaho(config)# ip route 172.31.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.2.1
*Idaho(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0
*Idaho(config)# ip route 172.31.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.2.2
Utah(config)# ip route 172.31.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.2.1
*Utah(config)# ip route 172.31.3.0 255.255.255.0 s1
Utah(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0
11
The network shown in the graphic is using RIP as the routing protocol. Which of the following are true regarding the network discovery process that will occur for this network? (Choose three.)
*The Palm Beach router will show networks 192.168.7.0 and 192.168.8.0 as directly connected networks.
All of the routers will have direct knowledge of the exact topology of the entire network.
*The Key West router will forward routing table information to the Miami and Palm Beach routers.
The Miami router will learn about network 192.168.1.0 from the Key West router.
*If network 192.168.4.0 becomes unavailable, the Key West router will notify the other routers of this fact in the next update.
12
Which of the following are necessary for basic network communication to occur between hosts that will run such applications as Telnet, web browsers, and e-mail? (Choose three.)
*TCP/IP must be installed and properly configured on each device.
Multiple subnets must be configured on the router to ensure accurate delivery.
*A default gateway must be configured for datagrams to travel outside of the LAN.
The hosts must be directly connected to a switch to travel outside of the LAN.
*To ensure accurate delivery, a router must be configured and accessible by hosts on the network.
13
When would the ROM monitor mode be used? (Choose two.)
maintaining routing configuration settings
*modifying the IOS image stored in Flash
running a limited IOS feature set
*performing the bootstrap process
14
Why is it useful to have an interface description?
A user can telnet to the router using the interface description.
The interface description is a shortcut way to edit the running-config.
*The interface description helps identify distant network connections.
The interface will remain inactive until an interface description is applied.
15
After issuing the show interfaces command, a technician notices the line "Serial1 is down, line protocol is down" in the output. Which of the following are possible reasons for this message output? (Choose three.)
There is a mismatch in the encapsulation type on both ends of the link.
*A Layer 1 issue exists.
*An interface problem exists.
The clockrate was not set during configuration.
*There is no usable media for the protocol.
Keepalive messages are not being sent.
16
The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command.
R 192.168.3.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:30, Serial0/0
What is the value of the routing metric?
*3
12
20
30
120
17
Which of the following WAN connection services typically use synchronous communications? (Choose two.)
circuit-switched
leased line
packet-switched
*Ethernet
analog modem services
18
Router B received an interface configuration change. Suddenly, it transmits a new update. Which of the following could have triggered this update? (Choose two.)
Router B received a configuration change.
*Router A sent a message requesting an update.
Router C came online after Router B sent the RIP update.
*Router B received an error message indicating the last update was not received.
19
Refer to the above graphic. When using RIP as the routing protocol, how would Chicago use load balancing to route packets to New York? (Choose two.)
*by forwarding packets over paths of equal cost
by forwarding packets according to hop count and speed of the link
*by determining which interface has the least traffic and sending to it first
by first determining the speed of the links and then cycling packets through the fastest links first
by cycling packets through interfaces and routes following the same pattern (Router 1, 2, 3) each time
20
Which command will produce the output shown in the graphic?
show cdp
*show cdp neighbors
show cdp neighbors detail
show cdp detail
21
Which of the following are true regarding the setup configuration mode? (Choose three.)
To abort the setup mode, use the CTRL+SHIFT+6 keys.
To abort the setup mode, use the CTRL+C keys.
*Setup mode allows a complete configuration of the router.
*To enter setup mode, use the privileged mode setup command.
A router that does not find a valid IOS during the boot process will start the system configuration dialog.
*A router that does not find a valid configuration file during the boot process will start the system configuration dialog.
22
Which statement about datagram life is true?
Each router increments the TTL value of the datagram until the maximum hop count of the routing protocol is reached. The packet is then returned to the source.
The packet is dropped when the router count and the TTL value match. The source is notified that transmission has failed.
*Each router decreases the TTL value by one until it reaches zero. The datagram is then discarded and a time exceeded for message is sent to the source.
The destination device discards the datagram if the TTL value is zero on arrival. An ICMP destination unreachable message is sent back to the source.
23
Assume OSPF is being used on all routers. What happens when the link between Router1 and Router2 goes down? (Choose two.)
Updates start broadcasting every 30 seconds.
Updates start broadcasting every 90 seconds.
Link-state advertisements are flooded.
*Link-state advertisements are sent only to neighboring routers.
*All routers note the change and adjust routes.
All routers ignore the change until the route becomes active again.
24
Why would an administrator use the Telnet application when troubleshooting a network? (Choose three.)
*It can be used to verify the operation of application layer software between the source and destination.
Telnet can use the ICMP protocol to verify a hardware connection and network layer address.
*It is the most complete testing mechanism available.
*Remote networks may be accessed via a Telnet session for troubleshooting.
Time to Live values are used by Telnet to identify a failure of device between source and destination.
25
A network administrator can establish a remote session to a host using the Router> telnet 192.168.1.1 command but is unsuccessful when using the Router> telnet Boston command to connect to the same interface. Which of the following could be the problem? (Choose two.)
*The ip host table on the router is not configured.
The command telnet Boston was issued from the wrong router prompt.
The routing table is missing.
*Domain name services are not available.
26
Which of the following are functions of a router? (Choose three.)
*packet switching
*extension of network segments
segmentation of local area networks
*selection of best path based on a logical addressing
selection of best path based on a physical addressing
27
Which two statements are true about route metrics? (Choose two.)
*The more factors that make up a metric, the greater the flexibility to tailor network operations.
The larger the metric number, the better the path.
Routing protocols use metrics to send routing updates to directly connected neighbors.
Bandwidth and delay are static metrics used by RIP v1.
*Ticks, delay, and cost are metrics used by routing protocols.
28
The administrator knows that port E0 on router B connects to a small LAN without any routers. Which command can be executed on router B to conserve bandwidth on port E0?
no update timers
holdown-timer 96
poison reverse E0
*passive-interface E0
no triggered updates
29
Which of the following are true statements about creating and applying access lists? (Choose three.)
Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific.
*One access list per port per protocol per direction is permitted.
*Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination.
There is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists.
*Statements are processed sequentially from top to bottom until a match is found.
The inbound keyword refers to traffic entering the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied.
30
What can be determined from the partial output of the show ip route command displayed below? (Choose two.)
R 200.200.200.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.10.2, 00:00:14, Serial0/0
C 192.168.10.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0
*The next update will be in 76 seconds.
*The next update will be in 16 seconds.
The administrative distance is 120 and the metric is 1.
The metric is 120 and the administrative distance is 1.
200.200.200.0 is configured on Serial0/0.
192.168.10.2 is configured on Serial0/0.
31
How many Telnet sessions can take place simultaneously on a router running a standard edition of the IOS?
4
*5
8
10
32
In the configuration register value 0x2104, which value represents the boot field setting?
x
2
1
0
*4
33
Host name resolution allows for the use of an alphanumeric name to identify network devices. Select the answer that displays the correct configuration syntax for creating a host name.
Router# ip host Fontana 200.100.50.5
*Router(config)# ip host Fontana 200.100.50.5
Router(config-if)# ip host Fontana 200.100.50.5
Router(config)# ip host Fontana 200.100.50.5/24
34
Refer to the network graphic. A packet needs to travel from Router F to Router A. Which path would be selected by the RIP routing protocol if the default metrics are used?
F, G, E, D, B, A
F, E, D, C, A
*F, E, D, A
F, E, D, B, A
35
Which of the following will add a TFTP server as a fallback source for a router to load an IOS image?
Router# boot system tftp 163.150.9.31 c2500-d-l.120-9
Router# copy run start
Router# boot system tftp c2500-d-l.120-9.bin 163.150.9.31
Router# copy run start
Router# config t
Router(config)# boot system tftp c2500-d-l.120-9.bin 163.150.9.31
Router(config)# exit
Router# copy run start
*Router# config t
Router(config)# boot system tftp 163.150.9.31 c2500-d-l.120-9.bin
Router(config)# exit
Router# copy run start
36
Which of the following are characteristics of the Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol? (Choose two.)
*functions as a link-state routing protocol
discards packets when the hop count is greater than 15
calculates the shortest path to a destination using the Diffused Update Algorithm (DUAL)
created as a proprietary routing protocol
*floods updates as topology changes occur
broadcasts routing updates every 90 seconds or as triggered by topology changes
37
The following access list has been created to prevent traffic from host 204.204.7.122 from accessing the 201.100.11.0 network.
access-list 22 deny host 204.204.7.122
access-list 22 permit any
Which group of commands will properly place this access list so that this host is denied access only to the 201.100.11.0 network?
RouterA(config)# interface s0/0
RouterA(config-if)# ip access-group 22 in
RouterA(config)# interface s0/0
RouterA(config-if)# ip access-group 22 out
RouterA(config)# interface fa0/0
RouterA(config-if)# ip access-group 22 in
RouterB(config)# interface fa0/0
RouterB(config-if)# ip access-group 22 in
RouterB(config)# interface s0/0
RouterB(config-if)# ip access-group 22 in
*RouterB(config)# interface fa0/0
RouterB(config-if)# ip access-group 22 out
38
What types of messages are sent periodically by devices configured for CDP?
probes
beacons
signals
*advertisements
routing updates
unicast
39
ACL statements operate in sequential, logical order. If a condition match is true, the rest of the ACL statements are not checked. If all of the ACL statements are unmatched, what happens to the packet?
The packets will be placed in a buffer and forwarded when the ACL is removed.
The packets will be sent to the source with an error notification message.
The implicit permit any statement placed at the end of the list will allow the packets to flow through uninhibited.
*The implicit deny any statement placed at the end of the list will cause the packets to be dropped.
40
Which statements are true regarding VTY passwords? (Choose two.)
VTY passwords must be encrypted.
All VTY lines do not need to use the same password.
*A VTY password is required to establish telnet sessions.
The VTY password is set with the command line console 0.
*The VTY password must be identical with the enable secret password.
41
Refer to the output from the show ip route command. What can be concluded from the output of this router command?
A preferred route to the destination has not been set.
*There are two equal cost paths to network 1.0.0.0.
Both interfaces are being used equally to route traffic.
A variance must be set to load-balance across multiple paths.
42
Refer to the exhibit. An ACL has been created that will deny the host 192.168.7.89 access to an FTP server located at 10.6.13.254.
access-list 111 deny tcp 192.168.7.89 0.0.0.0 10.6.13.254 0.0.0.0 eq 21
access-list 111 deny tcp 192.168.7.89 0.0.0.0 10.6.13.254 0.0.0.0 eq 20
access-list 111 permit ip any any
Which group of commands will place this ACL in the proper location?
Router2(config)#interface s0/0
Router2(config-if)#ip access-group 111 in
*Router2(config)#interface fa0/0
Router2(config-if)#ip access-group 111 out
Router3(config)#interface s0/1
Router3(config-if)#ip access-group 111 out
Router3(config)#interface fa0/0
Router3(config-if)#ip access-group 111 in
Router2(config)#interface fa0/0
Router2(config-if)#ip access-group 111 in
43
Which command is used to redirect debug information to a device that is connected though a Telnet session?
Router# monitor
Router# terminal redirect vty 0
Router# terminal monitor
*Router# monitor output vty 0
44
Given the above topology, which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
If RouterC receives a packet destined for 10.5.183.46, it will be forwarded out interface Serial 1.
*If RouterA receives a packet destined for 192.168.3.146, it will be forwarded out interface Ethernet 0.
*If RouterA receives a packet destined for 10.5.27.15, it will be forwarded out interface Serial 1.
If RouterB receives a packet destined for 10.5.27.83, it will be forwarded out interface Serial 0.
If RouterA receives a packet destined for 172.16.55.101, it will be forwarded out interface Serial 1.
45
Of the eight network users on the Human Resources department LAN, one cannot connect to the file server. The user's PC has successfully booted but can not see the network. What should be checked first?
the PC power cord
the file server
*the PC network interface card LEDs
the LAN switch in the wiring closet
the configuration of the router interface attached to the LAN
»» read more
An administrator has made routing protocol changes to a router's configuration. To ensure that the changes are implemented, the active configuration is saved and the router is reloaded. After the router has initialized, the output on the screen displays "Would you like to enter the initial configuration dialog?[yes/no]:" Why did this dialog appear?
There was a POST failure.
The incorrect IOS loaded.
There was an error in the startup configuration file.
*The configuration register was set to ignore NVRAM.
2
What are the major characteristics of a wide area network? (Choose three.)
*connect devices separated by wide geographical areas
*includes technologies of FDDI and Ethernet
uses serial connections to access bandwidth
*common carriers are needed for connections
type of connection between a router and a switch
3
If the config-register on a router is set to 0x2102, where is the first place the router will look for boot system commands?
RAM
ROM
Flash
*NVRAM
4
Which of the following are valid static IP routes? (Choose three.)
RouterB(config)# ip route 192.168.5.0 255.255.255.0 S1
*RouterC(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 S1
*RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.2
RouterB(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.2
*RouterC(config)# ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.4.1
RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.1
5
Refer to the network and routing table entries shown in the graphic. What will happen when a packet destined for network 192.66.7.0 is received by Router A?
*It will be forwarded through interface S1.
It will be forwarded to the default route.
It will be directed toward the Internet.
It will be discarded.
6
A network administrator trying to deny Telnet traffic from the 192.5.5.0 network to the 201.100.11.0 network entered the commands shown in the graphic. When monitoring the network, the administrator noticed that Telnet packets were still passing between those networks. What is the cause?
The router ignored this type of traffic because it required a standard access list to be configured instead of an extended one.
The wrong port was configured for the ACL so Telnet traffic was still allowed.
*The access list has not been assigned to an interface.
The permit ip any any allowed all traffic to pass regardless of the other statements listed in this ACL.
7
Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?
*load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration
load bootstrap, apply configuration, load IOS
load IOS, load bootstrap, apply configuration, check hardware
check hardware, apply configuration, load bootstrap, load IOS
8
Which of the following would cause the "Message Of The Day" banner to appear? (Choose three.)
*telnetting into the router
initiating a debug session
configuring a router for the first time
using the Aux port to check the current configuration
*using the console port to check the current configuration
9
When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command?
*when the interface is functioning as a DTE device
when the interface timers have been cleared
when the connected DTE device is shut down
when the interface is functioning as a DCE device
10
The internetwork needs to communicate between the hosts connected to the E0 interface of the Utah router and hosts connected to the E0 interface of the Idaho router. The hosts should also have connectivity to the Internet. Which commands must be configured in order to enable this communication? (Choose three.)
Idaho(config)# ip route 172.31.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.2.1
*Idaho(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0
*Idaho(config)# ip route 172.31.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.2.2
Utah(config)# ip route 172.31.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.2.1
*Utah(config)# ip route 172.31.3.0 255.255.255.0 s1
Utah(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0
11
The network shown in the graphic is using RIP as the routing protocol. Which of the following are true regarding the network discovery process that will occur for this network? (Choose three.)
*The Palm Beach router will show networks 192.168.7.0 and 192.168.8.0 as directly connected networks.
All of the routers will have direct knowledge of the exact topology of the entire network.
*The Key West router will forward routing table information to the Miami and Palm Beach routers.
The Miami router will learn about network 192.168.1.0 from the Key West router.
*If network 192.168.4.0 becomes unavailable, the Key West router will notify the other routers of this fact in the next update.
12
Which of the following are necessary for basic network communication to occur between hosts that will run such applications as Telnet, web browsers, and e-mail? (Choose three.)
*TCP/IP must be installed and properly configured on each device.
Multiple subnets must be configured on the router to ensure accurate delivery.
*A default gateway must be configured for datagrams to travel outside of the LAN.
The hosts must be directly connected to a switch to travel outside of the LAN.
*To ensure accurate delivery, a router must be configured and accessible by hosts on the network.
13
When would the ROM monitor mode be used? (Choose two.)
maintaining routing configuration settings
*modifying the IOS image stored in Flash
running a limited IOS feature set
*performing the bootstrap process
14
Why is it useful to have an interface description?
A user can telnet to the router using the interface description.
The interface description is a shortcut way to edit the running-config.
*The interface description helps identify distant network connections.
The interface will remain inactive until an interface description is applied.
15
After issuing the show interfaces command, a technician notices the line "Serial1 is down, line protocol is down" in the output. Which of the following are possible reasons for this message output? (Choose three.)
There is a mismatch in the encapsulation type on both ends of the link.
*A Layer 1 issue exists.
*An interface problem exists.
The clockrate was not set during configuration.
*There is no usable media for the protocol.
Keepalive messages are not being sent.
16
The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command.
R 192.168.3.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:30, Serial0/0
What is the value of the routing metric?
*3
12
20
30
120
17
Which of the following WAN connection services typically use synchronous communications? (Choose two.)
circuit-switched
leased line
packet-switched
*Ethernet
analog modem services
18
Router B received an interface configuration change. Suddenly, it transmits a new update. Which of the following could have triggered this update? (Choose two.)
Router B received a configuration change.
*Router A sent a message requesting an update.
Router C came online after Router B sent the RIP update.
*Router B received an error message indicating the last update was not received.
19
Refer to the above graphic. When using RIP as the routing protocol, how would Chicago use load balancing to route packets to New York? (Choose two.)
*by forwarding packets over paths of equal cost
by forwarding packets according to hop count and speed of the link
*by determining which interface has the least traffic and sending to it first
by first determining the speed of the links and then cycling packets through the fastest links first
by cycling packets through interfaces and routes following the same pattern (Router 1, 2, 3) each time
20
Which command will produce the output shown in the graphic?
show cdp
*show cdp neighbors
show cdp neighbors detail
show cdp detail
21
Which of the following are true regarding the setup configuration mode? (Choose three.)
To abort the setup mode, use the CTRL+SHIFT+6 keys.
To abort the setup mode, use the CTRL+C keys.
*Setup mode allows a complete configuration of the router.
*To enter setup mode, use the privileged mode setup command.
A router that does not find a valid IOS during the boot process will start the system configuration dialog.
*A router that does not find a valid configuration file during the boot process will start the system configuration dialog.
22
Which statement about datagram life is true?
Each router increments the TTL value of the datagram until the maximum hop count of the routing protocol is reached. The packet is then returned to the source.
The packet is dropped when the router count and the TTL value match. The source is notified that transmission has failed.
*Each router decreases the TTL value by one until it reaches zero. The datagram is then discarded and a time exceeded for message is sent to the source.
The destination device discards the datagram if the TTL value is zero on arrival. An ICMP destination unreachable message is sent back to the source.
23
Assume OSPF is being used on all routers. What happens when the link between Router1 and Router2 goes down? (Choose two.)
Updates start broadcasting every 30 seconds.
Updates start broadcasting every 90 seconds.
Link-state advertisements are flooded.
*Link-state advertisements are sent only to neighboring routers.
*All routers note the change and adjust routes.
All routers ignore the change until the route becomes active again.
24
Why would an administrator use the Telnet application when troubleshooting a network? (Choose three.)
*It can be used to verify the operation of application layer software between the source and destination.
Telnet can use the ICMP protocol to verify a hardware connection and network layer address.
*It is the most complete testing mechanism available.
*Remote networks may be accessed via a Telnet session for troubleshooting.
Time to Live values are used by Telnet to identify a failure of device between source and destination.
25
A network administrator can establish a remote session to a host using the Router> telnet 192.168.1.1 command but is unsuccessful when using the Router> telnet Boston command to connect to the same interface. Which of the following could be the problem? (Choose two.)
*The ip host table on the router is not configured.
The command telnet Boston was issued from the wrong router prompt.
The routing table is missing.
*Domain name services are not available.
26
Which of the following are functions of a router? (Choose three.)
*packet switching
*extension of network segments
segmentation of local area networks
*selection of best path based on a logical addressing
selection of best path based on a physical addressing
27
Which two statements are true about route metrics? (Choose two.)
*The more factors that make up a metric, the greater the flexibility to tailor network operations.
The larger the metric number, the better the path.
Routing protocols use metrics to send routing updates to directly connected neighbors.
Bandwidth and delay are static metrics used by RIP v1.
*Ticks, delay, and cost are metrics used by routing protocols.
28
The administrator knows that port E0 on router B connects to a small LAN without any routers. Which command can be executed on router B to conserve bandwidth on port E0?
no update timers
holdown-timer 96
poison reverse E0
*passive-interface E0
no triggered updates
29
Which of the following are true statements about creating and applying access lists? (Choose three.)
Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific.
*One access list per port per protocol per direction is permitted.
*Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination.
There is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists.
*Statements are processed sequentially from top to bottom until a match is found.
The inbound keyword refers to traffic entering the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied.
30
What can be determined from the partial output of the show ip route command displayed below? (Choose two.)
R 200.200.200.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.10.2, 00:00:14, Serial0/0
C 192.168.10.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0
*The next update will be in 76 seconds.
*The next update will be in 16 seconds.
The administrative distance is 120 and the metric is 1.
The metric is 120 and the administrative distance is 1.
200.200.200.0 is configured on Serial0/0.
192.168.10.2 is configured on Serial0/0.
31
How many Telnet sessions can take place simultaneously on a router running a standard edition of the IOS?
4
*5
8
10
32
In the configuration register value 0x2104, which value represents the boot field setting?
x
2
1
0
*4
33
Host name resolution allows for the use of an alphanumeric name to identify network devices. Select the answer that displays the correct configuration syntax for creating a host name.
Router# ip host Fontana 200.100.50.5
*Router(config)# ip host Fontana 200.100.50.5
Router(config-if)# ip host Fontana 200.100.50.5
Router(config)# ip host Fontana 200.100.50.5/24
34
Refer to the network graphic. A packet needs to travel from Router F to Router A. Which path would be selected by the RIP routing protocol if the default metrics are used?
F, G, E, D, B, A
F, E, D, C, A
*F, E, D, A
F, E, D, B, A
35
Which of the following will add a TFTP server as a fallback source for a router to load an IOS image?
Router# boot system tftp 163.150.9.31 c2500-d-l.120-9
Router# copy run start
Router# boot system tftp c2500-d-l.120-9.bin 163.150.9.31
Router# copy run start
Router# config t
Router(config)# boot system tftp c2500-d-l.120-9.bin 163.150.9.31
Router(config)# exit
Router# copy run start
*Router# config t
Router(config)# boot system tftp 163.150.9.31 c2500-d-l.120-9.bin
Router(config)# exit
Router# copy run start
36
Which of the following are characteristics of the Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol? (Choose two.)
*functions as a link-state routing protocol
discards packets when the hop count is greater than 15
calculates the shortest path to a destination using the Diffused Update Algorithm (DUAL)
created as a proprietary routing protocol
*floods updates as topology changes occur
broadcasts routing updates every 90 seconds or as triggered by topology changes
37
The following access list has been created to prevent traffic from host 204.204.7.122 from accessing the 201.100.11.0 network.
access-list 22 deny host 204.204.7.122
access-list 22 permit any
Which group of commands will properly place this access list so that this host is denied access only to the 201.100.11.0 network?
RouterA(config)# interface s0/0
RouterA(config-if)# ip access-group 22 in
RouterA(config)# interface s0/0
RouterA(config-if)# ip access-group 22 out
RouterA(config)# interface fa0/0
RouterA(config-if)# ip access-group 22 in
RouterB(config)# interface fa0/0
RouterB(config-if)# ip access-group 22 in
RouterB(config)# interface s0/0
RouterB(config-if)# ip access-group 22 in
*RouterB(config)# interface fa0/0
RouterB(config-if)# ip access-group 22 out
38
What types of messages are sent periodically by devices configured for CDP?
probes
beacons
signals
*advertisements
routing updates
unicast
39
ACL statements operate in sequential, logical order. If a condition match is true, the rest of the ACL statements are not checked. If all of the ACL statements are unmatched, what happens to the packet?
The packets will be placed in a buffer and forwarded when the ACL is removed.
The packets will be sent to the source with an error notification message.
The implicit permit any statement placed at the end of the list will allow the packets to flow through uninhibited.
*The implicit deny any statement placed at the end of the list will cause the packets to be dropped.
40
Which statements are true regarding VTY passwords? (Choose two.)
VTY passwords must be encrypted.
All VTY lines do not need to use the same password.
*A VTY password is required to establish telnet sessions.
The VTY password is set with the command line console 0.
*The VTY password must be identical with the enable secret password.
41
Refer to the output from the show ip route command. What can be concluded from the output of this router command?
A preferred route to the destination has not been set.
*There are two equal cost paths to network 1.0.0.0.
Both interfaces are being used equally to route traffic.
A variance must be set to load-balance across multiple paths.
42
Refer to the exhibit. An ACL has been created that will deny the host 192.168.7.89 access to an FTP server located at 10.6.13.254.
access-list 111 deny tcp 192.168.7.89 0.0.0.0 10.6.13.254 0.0.0.0 eq 21
access-list 111 deny tcp 192.168.7.89 0.0.0.0 10.6.13.254 0.0.0.0 eq 20
access-list 111 permit ip any any
Which group of commands will place this ACL in the proper location?
Router2(config)#interface s0/0
Router2(config-if)#ip access-group 111 in
*Router2(config)#interface fa0/0
Router2(config-if)#ip access-group 111 out
Router3(config)#interface s0/1
Router3(config-if)#ip access-group 111 out
Router3(config)#interface fa0/0
Router3(config-if)#ip access-group 111 in
Router2(config)#interface fa0/0
Router2(config-if)#ip access-group 111 in
43
Which command is used to redirect debug information to a device that is connected though a Telnet session?
Router# monitor
Router# terminal redirect vty 0
Router# terminal monitor
*Router# monitor output vty 0
44
Given the above topology, which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
If RouterC receives a packet destined for 10.5.183.46, it will be forwarded out interface Serial 1.
*If RouterA receives a packet destined for 192.168.3.146, it will be forwarded out interface Ethernet 0.
*If RouterA receives a packet destined for 10.5.27.15, it will be forwarded out interface Serial 1.
If RouterB receives a packet destined for 10.5.27.83, it will be forwarded out interface Serial 0.
If RouterA receives a packet destined for 172.16.55.101, it will be forwarded out interface Serial 1.
45
Of the eight network users on the Human Resources department LAN, one cannot connect to the file server. The user's PC has successfully booted but can not see the network. What should be checked first?
the PC power cord
the file server
*the PC network interface card LEDs
the LAN switch in the wiring closet
the configuration of the router interface attached to the LAN
CISCO CCNA 2 - Voucher Exam
1
Which protocol is used by e-mail servers to communicate with each other?
FTP
HTTP
TFTP
SMTP
POP
SNMP
2
Which command displays the active configuration file of a router?
Display startup-config
Display running-config
Show running-config
Show startup-config
3
What are the two basic functions used by a router to relay packets?
Filtering and switching
Path determination and filtering
Path determination and switching
Traffic analysis and filtering
4
Which of the following are advantages of using a static route? (Choose three.)
secure operation
highly adaptable
low maintenance configuration
low processor overhead
precise control of path selection
5
Which of the following are TCP services? (Choose three.)
address resolution
end-to-end communication
flow control
reliability of data delivery
path determination
data representation
6
What is the purpose of media access control?
It identifies which workstation has sent a frame.
It determines which Layer 3 protocol should handle a frame.
It identifies which Ethernet frame format to use on the network.
It determines which workstation on a shared medium LAN is allowed to transmit data.
7
Which of the following IP addresses are broadcast addresses if the subnet mask is 255.255.255.240? (Choose three.)
75.32.75.15
205.16.35.11
199.254.129.111
129.130.17.14
135.22.55.93
105.33.62.213
8
What is the default state of the interfaces on a router?
up, line protocol down
down, line protocol down
adminstratively down, line protocol down
up, line protocol up
9
How many bits are in IPv6 addresses?
16
32
64
96
128
258
10
Which OSI layer defines the functions of a router?
physical
data link
network
transport
session
11
What are the primary uses of Telnet? (Choose two.)
routing of data packets
transfer of data between end users
verification of application layer connectivity
connecting to remote network devices
12
Routers have different types of memory. Choose the answer that describes flash memory.
provides working storage
stores a fully functional IOS image
stores the startup configuration file
initializes the code used to boot the router
13
Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?
CDP running on Router D will gather information about routers A, B, C, and E.
By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.
If routers D and E are running different routing protocols, they will not exchange CDP information.
Router E can use CDP to identify the IOS running on Router B.
14
Which of the following describes path determination at the network layer?
router compares available ARP table information to select the best path
router uses routed protocol to determine the best path for data transmission
router compares available routing table information to select the best path
router uses a routing protocol to compare LAN equipment to route data through
switch compares available routing table information to select the best path
15
Which command turns on a router interface?
Router(config-if)# enable
Router(config-if)# no down
Router(config-if)# s0 active
Router(config-if)# interface up
Router(config-if)# no shutdown
If dynamic routing is not configured on a router, how do routing table updates occur?
Link state advertisements are sent from other routers.
Updates are made to the routing table by the administrator.
Best path information is communicated by network hosts.
The routing table is updated by neighboring routers.
17
What does TCP use to begin the three-way handshaking process?
The destination host sends an ACK segment.
The sending host sends a SYN segment.
The sending host sends a SYN and ACK segment.
The destination host sends a SYN segment.
18
Which statement accurately describes the way DHCP assigns IP addresses?
The network administator must re-assign a previously assigned address to the DHCP pool once a host no longer requires it.
DHCP offers a many-to-one ratio of IP addresses to users.
DHCP only allows users to obtain IP addresses if users have a profile in the DHCP pool.
DHCP has the ability to reclaim an IP address after a host workstation releases it.
19
Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask?
binary adding
hexadecimal anding
binary division
binary multiplication
binary ANDing
20
At which layer of the TCP/IP model does Telnet operate?
application
presentation
session
transport
internet
network access
21
Four concurrently running Telnet connections have been initiated. Which commands would enable the network administrator to view all of them? (Choose two.)
Router> show configuration
Router> show connections
Router> show sessions
Router# show configuration
Router# show connections
Router# show sessions
22
How many IP addresses can be assigned to host devices on each subnet of a Class B network with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.248?
3
5
6
8
30
8190
23
Pings between Atlanta and Dallas are successful. If a hostname table or DNS connection is not available, which command will successfully establish a remote connection from Atlanta to Dallas via Telnet?
Atlanta> connect Dallas
Atlanta> 197.72.3.2
Atlanta# 206.157.85.1
Atlanta# telnet Dallas
24
When does a distance vector routing protocol set a hold-down timer on a route?
when the metric value of the route decreases
when the route is marked as inaccessible
when the metric value for the route improves
when a regular update is received from a neighboring router
25
Which of the following is considered to be a multi-port bridge?
hub
switch
router
repeater
26
All numbering systems have a beginning or first digit and an end or last digit. Select the first and last digits representing Base 16, hexadecimal. (Choose two.)
0
A
9
F
15
27
Which of the following protocols operate at the application layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
FTP
TCP
UDP
HTTP
28
Which transport layer unit of information places the port number in the header?
data
segment
packet
frame
bit
29
For which condition will the ARP protocol be used?
The destination IP address is unknown.
The destination MAC address is unknown.
The source IP address is unknown.
The source MAC address is unknown.
30
Which protocol can be used to load or retrieve Cisco IOS images to or from a router?
SNMP
TFTP
UDP
TCP
31
What command enables CDP on the interface of a router?
Router(config-if)# cdp enable
Router(config-if)# cdp run
Router(config-if)# cdp start
Router(config-if)# cdp config
32
After issuing the command traceroute 192.168.4.2 from Router A, the following information is returned.
Tracing the route to Router_D (192.168.4.2)
1 Router_B (192.168.2.2) 16 msec 16 msec 16 msec
2
3
What can be concluded about the network shown in the graphic based on the output given?
Network 192.168.5.0 is missing from the routing table on Router A.
There is a problem with the connection between Router B and Router C.
Router C is not running CDP.
Some of the routers are non-Cisco devices.
Router B was not able to return ICMP TEMs to Router A.
33
What happens to a MAC address in a frame as it passes from router to router on its way to its destination?
Nothing, it remains the same.
MAC addresses are not passed from router to router.
It changes from router to router.
It keeps the MAC address of the first router it passes through.
34
An administrator has made routing protocol changes to a router's configuration. To ensure that the changes are implemented, the active configuration is saved and the router is reloaded. After the router has initialized, the output on the screen displays "Would you like to enter the initial configuration dialog?[yes/no]:" Why did this dialog appear?
There was a POST failure.
The incorrect IOS loaded.
There was an error in the startup configuration file.
The configuration register was set to ignore NVRAM.
35
Which criteria identify a Class B address? (Choose two.)
decimal number in first octet between 127 - 191
decimal number in first octet between 128 - 192
decimal number in first octet between 128 - 191
first bit of binary IP address is 0
first two bits of binary IP address are 10
first three bits of binary IP address are 110
36
Which of the following show commands would display the location of the IOS boot image?
show flash
show NVRAM
show version
show running-config
show startup-config
37
What is the purpose of the IOS enable secret command?
To allow the user to establish password protection on incoming Telnet sessions
To allow the user to establish password protection on the console terminal
To enable the user to access the User mode
To enable the user to enter a password that will be encrypted
38
Which of the following describes shared media environment?
a collision free environment made up of systems on the same medium
multiple hosts have access to the same cable ISP system
multiple hosts have access to the same medium.
multiple router environment in a mesh topology
39
What is the purpose of Positive Acknowledgment and Retransmission (PAR)?
PAR allows the presentation layer to request that data be resent in a format the destination host can process.
PAR provides a mechanism for the receiving device to request that all segments be retransmitted if one segment is corrupt.
PAR helps ensure that a number of data segments sent by one host are received by another host before additional data segments are sent.
PAR is used to renegotiate the window size during the synchronization process.
40
Which of the following describes the function of the Domain Name Service system?
It associates IP addresses to domain names.
It associates MAC addresses to domain names.
It associates DHCP addresses to domain names.
It associates TCP port numbers to domain names.
41
Which device imposes boundaries on broadcast traffic?
bridge
repeater
router
transceiver
42
The graphic depicts two workstations attached to two different hubs that are separated by a repeater. How many collision domains exist in this scenario?
one
two
three
four
five
43
Which TCP/IP layer provides services that support a logical connection between the sending and receiving hosts?
application
network
IP
transport
presentation
session
44
What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal attenuation affects the data delivery?
100 meters
185 meters
300 meters
500 meters
45
Which of the following types of networks pass a token sequentially to each host? (Choose two.)
Ethernet
Token Ring
FDDI
Frame Relay
ISDN
46
Identify the correct pairing of protocols and their classifications.
Routed - IP, IGRP
Routed - RIP, OSPF
Routing - IPX, RIP
Routing - OSPF, IGRP
47
Which Ethernet data link layer frame comparison is correct?
higher speed networks require more fields be included in the frame
the faster speed frame structures are incompatible with the slower speed networks
the frame structure changes with each higher speed, however, they are compatible with slower speeds
all speeds of Ethernet have nearly identical frame structures
48
Which switching mode describes a switch that transfers a frame as soon as the destination MAC address is read?
fragment-free
cut-through
store-and-forward
latency forwarding
49
Which TCP/IP model layer supports both LAN and WAN technologies?
network access layer
internet layer
transport layer
application layer
50
What is the first step a Cisco router performs after it is powered up?
Empties contents of NVRAM
Looks for the configuration file
Performs a POST
Starts the operating system
51
Which of the following are functions of RAM? (Choose three.)
contains startup configuration file
stores routing table
holds fast switching cache
retains contents when power is removed
stores running configuration file
52
How does a network device determine a collision has occurred on an Ethernet network?
The voltage of the signal on the networking media will increase.
The voltage of the signal on the networking media will decrease.
The voltage of the signal on the networking media will remain the same.
The voltage of the signal on the networking media will increase and decrease rapidly.
53
If a network node is connected to a switch port using full-duplex transmission, which of the following conditions exists?
a two-node collision domain
no collision domain
a multi-port collision domain
no broadcast domain
a two-node broadcast domain
54
Given the IP address 10.122.200.77 and subnet mask 255.255.255.224, what is the subnet address?
10.0.0.0
10.0.0.32
10.0.0.64
10.122.200.0
10.122.200.32
10.122.200.64
55
Which command will display routing table information about all known networks and subnetworks?
Router# show ip interfaces
Router# show ip connections
Router# show ip route
Router# show ip networks
56
Which of the following statements describe distance vector routing updates? (Choose three.)
Topology changes are transmitted to all routers at once.
Routers send their entire routing tables in distance vector updates.
Path cost metrics for each route are included in the updates.
Periodic updates are sent directly to every router in the network.
Routing updates are sent periodically to adjacent routers.
Routers send only the state of their own links in distance vector updates.
57
How many Telnet sessions can take place simultaneously on a router running a standard edition of the IOS?
4
5
8
10
58
What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?
dynamic
interior
static
standard
59
Which two statements are true regarding ICMP? (Choose two.)
ICMP provides reliability for the TCP/IP protocol stack.
ICMP is a component of the TCP/IP protocol stack.
ICMP notifies the sender that data transmission errors have occurred.
ICMP is connection-oriented.
ICMP messages are propagated to all intermediate devices.
60
Which of the following are benefits of creating a subnetwork structure in an IP network? (Choose three.)
permits network address duplication
allows for address flexibility
prevents address replication
provides broadcast containment
adds low-level security
allows for more network hosts available
»» read more
Which protocol is used by e-mail servers to communicate with each other?
FTP
HTTP
TFTP
SMTP
POP
SNMP
2
Which command displays the active configuration file of a router?
Display startup-config
Display running-config
Show running-config
Show startup-config
3
What are the two basic functions used by a router to relay packets?
Filtering and switching
Path determination and filtering
Path determination and switching
Traffic analysis and filtering
4
Which of the following are advantages of using a static route? (Choose three.)
secure operation
highly adaptable
low maintenance configuration
low processor overhead
precise control of path selection
5
Which of the following are TCP services? (Choose three.)
address resolution
end-to-end communication
flow control
reliability of data delivery
path determination
data representation
6
What is the purpose of media access control?
It identifies which workstation has sent a frame.
It determines which Layer 3 protocol should handle a frame.
It identifies which Ethernet frame format to use on the network.
It determines which workstation on a shared medium LAN is allowed to transmit data.
7
Which of the following IP addresses are broadcast addresses if the subnet mask is 255.255.255.240? (Choose three.)
75.32.75.15
205.16.35.11
199.254.129.111
129.130.17.14
135.22.55.93
105.33.62.213
8
What is the default state of the interfaces on a router?
up, line protocol down
down, line protocol down
adminstratively down, line protocol down
up, line protocol up
9
How many bits are in IPv6 addresses?
16
32
64
96
128
258
10
Which OSI layer defines the functions of a router?
physical
data link
network
transport
session
11
What are the primary uses of Telnet? (Choose two.)
routing of data packets
transfer of data between end users
verification of application layer connectivity
connecting to remote network devices
12
Routers have different types of memory. Choose the answer that describes flash memory.
provides working storage
stores a fully functional IOS image
stores the startup configuration file
initializes the code used to boot the router
13
Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?
CDP running on Router D will gather information about routers A, B, C, and E.
By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.
If routers D and E are running different routing protocols, they will not exchange CDP information.
Router E can use CDP to identify the IOS running on Router B.
14
Which of the following describes path determination at the network layer?
router compares available ARP table information to select the best path
router uses routed protocol to determine the best path for data transmission
router compares available routing table information to select the best path
router uses a routing protocol to compare LAN equipment to route data through
switch compares available routing table information to select the best path
15
Which command turns on a router interface?
Router(config-if)# enable
Router(config-if)# no down
Router(config-if)# s0 active
Router(config-if)# interface up
Router(config-if)# no shutdown
If dynamic routing is not configured on a router, how do routing table updates occur?
Link state advertisements are sent from other routers.
Updates are made to the routing table by the administrator.
Best path information is communicated by network hosts.
The routing table is updated by neighboring routers.
17
What does TCP use to begin the three-way handshaking process?
The destination host sends an ACK segment.
The sending host sends a SYN segment.
The sending host sends a SYN and ACK segment.
The destination host sends a SYN segment.
18
Which statement accurately describes the way DHCP assigns IP addresses?
The network administator must re-assign a previously assigned address to the DHCP pool once a host no longer requires it.
DHCP offers a many-to-one ratio of IP addresses to users.
DHCP only allows users to obtain IP addresses if users have a profile in the DHCP pool.
DHCP has the ability to reclaim an IP address after a host workstation releases it.
19
Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask?
binary adding
hexadecimal anding
binary division
binary multiplication
binary ANDing
20
At which layer of the TCP/IP model does Telnet operate?
application
presentation
session
transport
internet
network access
21
Four concurrently running Telnet connections have been initiated. Which commands would enable the network administrator to view all of them? (Choose two.)
Router> show configuration
Router> show connections
Router> show sessions
Router# show configuration
Router# show connections
Router# show sessions
22
How many IP addresses can be assigned to host devices on each subnet of a Class B network with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.248?
3
5
6
8
30
8190
23
Pings between Atlanta and Dallas are successful. If a hostname table or DNS connection is not available, which command will successfully establish a remote connection from Atlanta to Dallas via Telnet?
Atlanta> connect Dallas
Atlanta> 197.72.3.2
Atlanta# 206.157.85.1
Atlanta# telnet Dallas
24
When does a distance vector routing protocol set a hold-down timer on a route?
when the metric value of the route decreases
when the route is marked as inaccessible
when the metric value for the route improves
when a regular update is received from a neighboring router
25
Which of the following is considered to be a multi-port bridge?
hub
switch
router
repeater
26
All numbering systems have a beginning or first digit and an end or last digit. Select the first and last digits representing Base 16, hexadecimal. (Choose two.)
0
A
9
F
15
27
Which of the following protocols operate at the application layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
FTP
TCP
UDP
HTTP
28
Which transport layer unit of information places the port number in the header?
data
segment
packet
frame
bit
29
For which condition will the ARP protocol be used?
The destination IP address is unknown.
The destination MAC address is unknown.
The source IP address is unknown.
The source MAC address is unknown.
30
Which protocol can be used to load or retrieve Cisco IOS images to or from a router?
SNMP
TFTP
UDP
TCP
31
What command enables CDP on the interface of a router?
Router(config-if)# cdp enable
Router(config-if)# cdp run
Router(config-if)# cdp start
Router(config-if)# cdp config
32
After issuing the command traceroute 192.168.4.2 from Router A, the following information is returned.
Tracing the route to Router_D (192.168.4.2)
1 Router_B (192.168.2.2) 16 msec 16 msec 16 msec
2
3
What can be concluded about the network shown in the graphic based on the output given?
Network 192.168.5.0 is missing from the routing table on Router A.
There is a problem with the connection between Router B and Router C.
Router C is not running CDP.
Some of the routers are non-Cisco devices.
Router B was not able to return ICMP TEMs to Router A.
33
What happens to a MAC address in a frame as it passes from router to router on its way to its destination?
Nothing, it remains the same.
MAC addresses are not passed from router to router.
It changes from router to router.
It keeps the MAC address of the first router it passes through.
34
An administrator has made routing protocol changes to a router's configuration. To ensure that the changes are implemented, the active configuration is saved and the router is reloaded. After the router has initialized, the output on the screen displays "Would you like to enter the initial configuration dialog?[yes/no]:" Why did this dialog appear?
There was a POST failure.
The incorrect IOS loaded.
There was an error in the startup configuration file.
The configuration register was set to ignore NVRAM.
35
Which criteria identify a Class B address? (Choose two.)
decimal number in first octet between 127 - 191
decimal number in first octet between 128 - 192
decimal number in first octet between 128 - 191
first bit of binary IP address is 0
first two bits of binary IP address are 10
first three bits of binary IP address are 110
36
Which of the following show commands would display the location of the IOS boot image?
show flash
show NVRAM
show version
show running-config
show startup-config
37
What is the purpose of the IOS enable secret command?
To allow the user to establish password protection on incoming Telnet sessions
To allow the user to establish password protection on the console terminal
To enable the user to access the User mode
To enable the user to enter a password that will be encrypted
38
Which of the following describes shared media environment?
a collision free environment made up of systems on the same medium
multiple hosts have access to the same cable ISP system
multiple hosts have access to the same medium.
multiple router environment in a mesh topology
39
What is the purpose of Positive Acknowledgment and Retransmission (PAR)?
PAR allows the presentation layer to request that data be resent in a format the destination host can process.
PAR provides a mechanism for the receiving device to request that all segments be retransmitted if one segment is corrupt.
PAR helps ensure that a number of data segments sent by one host are received by another host before additional data segments are sent.
PAR is used to renegotiate the window size during the synchronization process.
40
Which of the following describes the function of the Domain Name Service system?
It associates IP addresses to domain names.
It associates MAC addresses to domain names.
It associates DHCP addresses to domain names.
It associates TCP port numbers to domain names.
41
Which device imposes boundaries on broadcast traffic?
bridge
repeater
router
transceiver
42
The graphic depicts two workstations attached to two different hubs that are separated by a repeater. How many collision domains exist in this scenario?
one
two
three
four
five
43
Which TCP/IP layer provides services that support a logical connection between the sending and receiving hosts?
application
network
IP
transport
presentation
session
44
What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal attenuation affects the data delivery?
100 meters
185 meters
300 meters
500 meters
45
Which of the following types of networks pass a token sequentially to each host? (Choose two.)
Ethernet
Token Ring
FDDI
Frame Relay
ISDN
46
Identify the correct pairing of protocols and their classifications.
Routed - IP, IGRP
Routed - RIP, OSPF
Routing - IPX, RIP
Routing - OSPF, IGRP
47
Which Ethernet data link layer frame comparison is correct?
higher speed networks require more fields be included in the frame
the faster speed frame structures are incompatible with the slower speed networks
the frame structure changes with each higher speed, however, they are compatible with slower speeds
all speeds of Ethernet have nearly identical frame structures
48
Which switching mode describes a switch that transfers a frame as soon as the destination MAC address is read?
fragment-free
cut-through
store-and-forward
latency forwarding
49
Which TCP/IP model layer supports both LAN and WAN technologies?
network access layer
internet layer
transport layer
application layer
50
What is the first step a Cisco router performs after it is powered up?
Empties contents of NVRAM
Looks for the configuration file
Performs a POST
Starts the operating system
51
Which of the following are functions of RAM? (Choose three.)
contains startup configuration file
stores routing table
holds fast switching cache
retains contents when power is removed
stores running configuration file
52
How does a network device determine a collision has occurred on an Ethernet network?
The voltage of the signal on the networking media will increase.
The voltage of the signal on the networking media will decrease.
The voltage of the signal on the networking media will remain the same.
The voltage of the signal on the networking media will increase and decrease rapidly.
53
If a network node is connected to a switch port using full-duplex transmission, which of the following conditions exists?
a two-node collision domain
no collision domain
a multi-port collision domain
no broadcast domain
a two-node broadcast domain
54
Given the IP address 10.122.200.77 and subnet mask 255.255.255.224, what is the subnet address?
10.0.0.0
10.0.0.32
10.0.0.64
10.122.200.0
10.122.200.32
10.122.200.64
55
Which command will display routing table information about all known networks and subnetworks?
Router# show ip interfaces
Router# show ip connections
Router# show ip route
Router# show ip networks
56
Which of the following statements describe distance vector routing updates? (Choose three.)
Topology changes are transmitted to all routers at once.
Routers send their entire routing tables in distance vector updates.
Path cost metrics for each route are included in the updates.
Periodic updates are sent directly to every router in the network.
Routing updates are sent periodically to adjacent routers.
Routers send only the state of their own links in distance vector updates.
57
How many Telnet sessions can take place simultaneously on a router running a standard edition of the IOS?
4
5
8
10
58
What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?
dynamic
interior
static
standard
59
Which two statements are true regarding ICMP? (Choose two.)
ICMP provides reliability for the TCP/IP protocol stack.
ICMP is a component of the TCP/IP protocol stack.
ICMP notifies the sender that data transmission errors have occurred.
ICMP is connection-oriented.
ICMP messages are propagated to all intermediate devices.
60
Which of the following are benefits of creating a subnetwork structure in an IP network? (Choose three.)
permits network address duplication
allows for address flexibility
prevents address replication
provides broadcast containment
adds low-level security
allows for more network hosts available
CISCO CCNA 3- PRACTICE FINAL
1
If EIGRP routing is employed and the successor route to a destination becomes unreachable or unreliable, which of the following would be used as a replacement?
the route flagged as active in the topology table
*the feasible successor route in the topology table
the default gateway in the neighbor table
the primary designated route in the topology table
the backup designated router in the routing table
2
Which VLAN implementation method requires less administration in the wiring closet and can provide notification if an unauthorized user attempts to connect to the network?
port-centric
static
*dynamic
geographic
3
What does the router shown in the graphic provide to the network? (Choose three.)
*forwarding of packets between VLANs
forwarding of broadcast frames between VLANs
*improved efficiency in bandwidth utilization
*connectivity of local hosts with remote resources
elimination of VLAN configuration errors
prevention of switching loops
4
Which of the following are layers in the hierarchical design model? (Choose three.)
gateway
*access
*distribution
network
*core
domain
5
What is required for OSPF routers to share routing information?
designated routers
a backup designated router
*neighbor adjacencies
an NBMA network topology
links configured on the 224.0.0.0 network
6
Which of the following statements describe trunking? (Choose two.)
*Trunking bundles multiple virtual links over one physical link.
Trunking decreases the number of switch ports available for hosts.
Trunking complicates the physical interconnection of switches in the wiring closet.
*Trunks can be configured to carry traffic for several VLANs between switches.
Trunking requires one switch port for each configured VLAN.
7
The network 192.1.1.0 has been subnetted for a network design. The 192.1.1.16/28 subnet has been chosen for further subnetting to provide for point-to-point serial link addressing. How many serial link subnets can be created while minimizing the number of wasted addresses?
1
2
*4
6
8
16
8
The spanning tree election process has taken place on a network containing five bridges. How many total root bridges have been elected?
*1
3
5
one per trunk port
9
In which STP state does a switch port only receive BPDUs?
*blocking
learning
disabled
listening
forwarding
10
Which command is used to copy a backup configuration file from a server to the non-volatile memory of a switch?
Switch# copy startup-config tftp
*Switch# copy tftp startup-config
Switch# copy NVRAM tftp
Switch# copy tftp NVRAM
Switch# copy tftp flash
11
Which of the switches shown in the graphic will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
*Cat-A
Cat-B
Cat-C
Cat-D
12
Under which of the following circumstances might two routers have trouble establishing a neighbor relationship in an OSPF network? (Choose three.)
*Hello packets are not sent from either neighbor.
*The interfaces are on different network types.
The network command has put the connected interfaces into the same OSPF area.
Slow network connections cause OSPF advertisements to time out.
*Authentication passwords or keys are different.
13
Which of the following are characteristics of link-state routing protocols? (Choose three.)
*collection of routing information from within a defined area of the network
*view of network from neighbor's perspective
*independent calculation of best paths to all destinations
propagation of incorrect information minimized
demonstration of universal compatibility and simplicity
14
What is the minimum amount of bandwidth that Layer 2 LAN switches should provide to servers?
1 Mbps
10 Mbps
*100 Mbps
1000 Mbps
1 Gbps
15
A new color laser printer has been configured on the Marketing VLAN. Users on the Sales VLAN would also like to have access to this printer. What must be done in order for the Sales department users to be able to access this device?
A root bridge must be elected to allow the traffic to cross.
A bridge must be configured with a compatible bridging protocol.
*A router must be installed and configured to connect the VLANs.
No traffic should be allowed to pass between VLANs.
The print server must be configured to accept connections over VTP.
16
Which of the following is the metric that OSPF uses to determine the best route to a destination network?
administrative distance
*cost
hop count
link delay
17
What is required for full-duplex Ethernet transmissions?
one pair of conductors in the cable and a switched connection between each node
two pairs of conductors in the cable and a switched connection between each node
*two pairs of conductors in the cable and a non-switched connection between each node
four pairs of conductors in the cable and a non-switched connection between each node
18
What affects network availability? (Choose three.)
location
*throughput
user proficiency
*response time
workstation speed
*access to resources
19
How does an Ethernet switch improve network performance? (Choose three.)
*allows multiple frames to be forwarded simultaneously
decreases the number of broadcast domains
increases network latency
eliminates unnecessary broadcast frames
*reduces the size of collision domains
*increases the number of collision domains
20
Which type of address does OSPF use to initiate new adjacencies and to ensure that neighbor routers are functioning?
broadcast
loopback
*multicast
unicast
21
What problems can occur on a redundant switched network? (Choose three.)
*A destination device may receive a frame more than once.
*The switch may learn an incorrect MAC address-to-port mapping.
*Broadcast storms may make the network appear down.
A frame may be dropped before reaching its destination.
The network may not converge.
22
A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to most efficiently provide for the number of host addresses required by Router C, while wasting the fewest addresses?
/31
/30
/29
/28
/27
*/26
23
When the mode LED on a Cisco switch is set to STAT, what port status is indicated by a green flashing port LED?
no link
port is not forwarding
*port is sending or receiving data
port is sending, but not receiving
link fault
24
How many collision domains will there be in the entire network shown in the graphic if Hub1 is replaced with a Layer 2 switch?
2
3
*4
7
8
10
25
Which of the following are performed by a switch port that is in the forwarding state in an STP network? (Choose three.)
discarding data traffic
*receiving data traffic
*forwarding data traffic
recalculating BPDUs
*receiving BPDUs
blocking BPDUs
26
Which of the following are considered limitations of RIP v1? (Choose three.)
*It does not support authentication.
It sends updates as broadcasts on 255.255.255.255.
*It does not send subnet mask information in its updates.
It is not widely supported in multivendor routing environments.
*It does not support equal-cost load balancing.
27
What will be the result of OSPF DR/BDR elections in the network shown in the diagram? (Choose three.)
*R1 will be the DR for the 10.1.1.0/24 network.
*R1 will be the DR for the 10.1.2.0/24 network.
*R1 will be the DR for the 10.1.3.0/24 network.
R2 will be the DR for the 10.1.1.0/24 network.
R3 will be the DR for the 10.1.2.0/24 network.
R4 will be the DR for the 10.1.3.0/24 network.
28
An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the graphic?
*forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3
add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table
forward the frame out Interface3
discard the frame
forward the frame out all interfaces
forward the frame out Interface2
29
A redundant switched topology is being installed in an enterprise. Which of the following should be configured to ensure that this network operates efficiently?
TTL
*STP
BID
BPDU
ARP
30
How can MAC address table entries be removed from a switch? (Choose two.)
*Power cycle the switch to clear all dynamically learned addresses.
The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries.
*The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries.
The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries.
Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.
31
What is the term that describes the cabling between the MDF and IDF locations as shown in the graphic?
horizontal cross-connect
horizontal cross-cabling
*vertical cross-connect
vertical cross-cabling
32
An entire workgroup has lost network connectivity. After shutting down and restarting the workgroup switch in the wiring closet, it is observed that the switch system LED is amber. What should be done?
The switch should be reconfigured.
*The switch should be replaced in order to restore connectivity to the workgroup.
The switch should be allowed to complete POST before its configuration is checked.
The switch has returned to service, however its configuration should be checked.
33
Which of the following statements about link-state advertisements are correct? (Choose three.)
LSAs are sent to neighboring routers on a regular basis.
LSAs are used by a router to determine if a neighboring router is online.
*LSAs are multicast to all routers in the area.
*LSAs contain the topological database of the sending router.
Routers use LSAs to learn about the topology of the entire network.
*LSAs are sent when the router detects a topology change.
34
A switch that was previously attached to another VTP management domain is added to an existing VTP domain. VLAN information on all the other switches in the existing VTP management domain is lost. Why did this happen?
Adding the new switch caused spanning tree protocol to recalculate the network and erase the existing VLAN configurations.
The new switch BID was higher than the existing VTP server, causing the new switch to broadcast incorrect VLAN information to the domain.
*The new switch had a higher VTP configuration revision number than the other switches in the domain and erased the VLAN information on the VTP server and VTP clients.
The new switch exceeded the maximum number of switches permitted in a management domain.
The switch advertised VTP version 2 information to the network, causing the existing VLAN data to be overwritten.
35
Refer to the topology and link path costs shown in the graphic. What is the total cost of the path that OSPF will use between the Data_Center router and the BldgA router?
2
11
*12
65
66
36
Which LAN design requirement addresses user-to user and user-to-application connectivity?
adaptability
manageability
scalability
*functionality
37
A router is configured to connect to a trunked uplink as shown in the graphic. A packet is received on the FastEthernet 0/1 physical interface from VLAN 1. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?
The router will ignore the packet because the source and destination are on the same broadcast domain.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
*The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.
38
Which of the following are features of the distribution layer? (Choose three.)
VLAN routing
MAC layer filtering
*security
microsegmentation
*packet filtering with access control lists
*workgroup access
39
The LAN devices are configured as shown in the diagram. Why are Host1 and Host2 unable to communicate? (Choose three.)
*A router is required to forward traffic between the hosts.
*The switch ports are on different VLANs.
The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN.
The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.
*The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet.
The hosts are configured on different logical networks.
40
While deleting the VLANs from a switch, a network administrator receives the following message, "A default VLAN may not be deleted". What did the administrator do to cause this message to be displayed?
The no vlan all command was entered.
The no switchport mode access command was not properly entered.
*The no vlan 1 command was entered.
The no vlan command was entered in database configuration mode.
The no default vlan command was entered.
The administrator attempted to delete a VLAN that still has switch ports assigned to it.
41
Which of the following statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)
VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
*All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.
Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled.
*All interfaces are set to auto.
Enable password is configured as cisco.
*The flash directory contains the IOS image.
42
What is indicated when an EIGRP route is in the passive state?
The route has the highest path cost of all routes to that destination network.
The route must be confirmed by neighboring routers before it is put in the active state.
The route is a feasible successor and will be used if the active route fails.
There is no activity on the route to that network.
*The route is viable and can be used to forward traffic.
43
Which of the following are characteristics of a router-on-a-stick design for inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.)
*multiple logical router interfaces
multiple physical router interfaces
*one logical router interface
one physical router interface
*multiple logical networks defined for each VLAN
one logical network defined for each VLAN
44
Which of the following tables does DUAL use to calculate the lowest cost routes to each destination?
routing table and topology table
neighbor table and routing table
*neighbor table and topology table
neighbor table and adjacency table
45
Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure a router interface to serve the newly added network 192.168.10.64/27 and to advertise this network over RIP v2? (Choose three.)
*Configure RIP v2 with the network command and the IP network number for the new network.
Configure RIP v2 with the network command and the IP host address and subnet mask for the newly activated interface.
Configure the router with the ip subnet-zero command so that this network can be added and advertised.
*Apply a network host address and subnet mask to the newly activated interface.
*Activate the routing protocol with the router rip version 2 command.
Configure RIP on the other routers in the enterprise with an entry for the newly added network.
46
Using Telnet, a network administrator is unable to log in to a switch located at another office in order to make configuration changes to it. What could be the problem?
The managmement station does not have access to a full-duplex Fast Ethernet link on the switch.
*VLAN 1 on the switch is not configured for TCP/IP network access.
The switch must be managed from the local LAN.
The switch hostname has not been set.
47
The routers in the diagram are configured for RIP v2 on network 1.0.0.0. Additional static routes are configured as shown in the graphic. What will RA do with a packet it receives on interface 1.1.1.1 that is destined for host 2.2.1.1 on a remote network?
buffer it until it learns a route to 2.2.0.0
forward it to 1.1.1.2
forward it to 1.1.2.2
*forward it to 1.1.3.2
forward it to 2.1.1.2
drop the packet
48
Which strategies can a company take to enhance network reliability through redundancy? (Choose two.)
*Eliminate single points of failure.
Flood frames for unknown destinations.
Send multiple frames to an end device.
*Design alternate routes to a destination.
Forward MAC address tables to all switches on the network.
Eliminate multiple paths to the same destination.
49
Which interior routing protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.)
*OSPF
RIP v1
*RIP v2
*EIGRP
BGP
IGRP
50
Router XYZ is to be added to OSPF area 0. Which of the following is the correct syntax for enabling OSPF on this router?
XYZ(config)# router ospf
*XYZ(config)# router ospf 0
XYZ(config)# router ospf 10
XYZ(config)# router ospf process 0
XYZ(config)# router ospf process 10
XYZ(config)# router ospf processid 10
51
Users are complaining that resources housed on a remote network have become unavailable. Which command can the administrator use to check whether this destination network is known to the local router?
*router# show ip route
router# show route
router# show ip rip
router# show rip
router# show protocol
52
What is the purpose of a default route?
A default route will cause packets addressed to unknown destination networks to be dropped.
*A default route will cause packets addressed to unknown destination networks to be sent to a designated router interface.
A default route will cause packets addressed to known destinations to prefer a specified path to the destination network.
A default route will direct packets for all destination networks to a designated router and router interface.
53
Refer to the graphic. Which point must be reached before a bridge will forward a frame?
A
B
C
D
E
*F
54
The 192.168.10.0/27 network is to be further subnetted with a /30 mask. Assuming that ip subnet-zero is enabled, what are the first two addresses in the first resulting subnet that can be used for point-to-point links?
*192.168.10.1
*192.168.10.2
192.168.10.33
192.168.10.34
192.168.10.193
192.168.10.194
55
Which distribution layer devices enhance Layer 2 switching with Layer 3 functionality? (Choose two.)
multilayer routers
*multilayer switches
bridges
managed hubs
VLANs
*a switch with a router module
56
What do switches configured with VLANs provide to an enterprise network? (Choose three.)
bridging between VLANs
*security
*broadcast control
physical grouping of users
*logical grouping of users
enlargement of collison domains
57
A switched Ethernet network is experiencing unusually heavy traffic to the extent that network delays have become intolerable. While investigating the problem, a network administrator disconnects a redundant uplink between two switches. The excessive traffic quickly subsides. What was the likely cause of this problem?
*broadcast storms
routing loops
multiple frame copies
load balancing
unicast frame forwarding
58
Which Ethernet device has the highest latency factor?
transceiver
hub
MAU
*router
switch
59
How do EIGRP routers actively maintain neighbor relationships?
They dynamically learn new routes.
They continously monitor the status of their own ports.
They exchange their entire neighbor tables with directly attached routers.
*They exchange hello packets with their neighbors every five seconds, by default.
They compare known routes to received updates.
60
Which of the following statements regarding server placement are correct? (Choose two.)
*Enterprise servers should be located in the MDF.
Enterprise servers should be located in an IDF.
Workgroup servers should be located in the MDF.
*Workgroup servers should be located in an IDF.
Both workgroup and enterprise servers should be located in the MDF.
Both workgroup and enterprise servers should be located in an IDF.
61
How are RIP v1 and RIP v2 similar to one another? (Choose three.)
*They both use hop count as a metric.
*They both have the same metric value for infinite distance.
They both broadcast their updates to their neighbors.
They both send subnet mask information in their updates.
They both provide for authentication of update sources.
*They both use split horizon to prevent routing loops.
62
Which algorithm does EIGRP use to calculate routes?
PDM
RTP
*DUAL
LSA
postamble();
CISCO CCNA 4 - Voucher Exam
CISCO CCNA4- VOUCHER EXAM v.3.1
1
Which of the following are benefits of creating a subnetwork structure in an IP network? (Choose three.)
permits network address duplication
*allows for address flexibility
*prevents address replication
provides broadcast containment
adds low-level security
*allows for more network hosts available
2
Refer to the graphic. Which of the following are true regarding the route summary EIGRP would utilize for the networks on RouterA? (Choose two.)
The networks can be summarized with auto-summary.
*The network summary must be manually configured.
The default subnet mask can be used to summarize the networks.
The networks can be summarized with 172.16.64.0/26.
*The networks can be summarized with 172.16.64.0/27.
The networks can be summarized with 172.16.64.0/28.
3
Which address does a bridge use to build its bridging table?
destination IP address
*destination MAC address
source IP address
source MAC address
4
Which of the following do switches send at regular intervals to eliminate switching loops?
bi-directional protocol data units
binary protocol data units
*bridge protocol data units
buffered protocol data units
5
What is required to configure multiple DLCIs on a single router interface?
A single network address
Multiple LMIs
*Subinterfaces
Multiple IP addresses on the same subnet
6
Which component designates a device that is not compatible with ISDN and requires a terminal adapter?
NT1
*NT2
TE1
TE2
7
What is an advantage of the use of layers in the OSI reference model?
It breaks network communications into larger parts.
It increases complexity.
*It prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers.
It requires the use of single-vendor equipment for hardware and software communications.
8
What is the purpose of the show CDP neighbors command?
to send a summary of the local router configuration to all directly attached Cisco devices
*to display information about all Cisco devices that are directly connected to a local router
to display information about all Cisco networks in the WAN
to display addressing information about all remote routers
to display the names of all OSPF neighbors in the local area
9
Which type of ACL only checks the source address?
Extended ACL
General ACL
Source ACL
*Standard ACL
10
Which of the following improves security in PPP authentication?
LCP
NCP
*CHAP
PAP
11
For which condition will the ARP protocol be used?
The destination IP address is unknown.
*The destination MAC address is unknown.
The source IP address is unknown.
The source MAC address is unknown.
12
What is the name of that point in a LAN where the responsibility of the network administrator ends and the responsibility of the telco begins?
point of presence
local loop
DTE
*demarcation
13
What determines how much data a sending station running TCP/IP can transmit before it must receive an acknowledgment?
segment size
transmission rate
*bandwidth
window size
sequence number
14
Which utility can be used to verify connectivity through all seven layers of the OSI model?
netstat
ping
*Telnet
traceroute
15
Which statements about VLANs are true? (Choose three.)
VLANs are restricted to a physical segment.
*They are logical groupings of devices.
*User hosts can be grouped by function.
*VLANs are configured by software.
VLANs are standardized.
16
Which of the following IP addresses are broadcast addresses if the subnet mask is 255.255.255.240? (Choose three.)
*75.32.75.15
205.16.35.11
*199.254.129.111
*129.130.17.143
135.22.55.93
105.33.62.213
17
Which networking device performs path determination?
a hub
a switch
*a router
a bridge
18
Which device allows data communication to occur between VLANs?
bridge
hub
switch
*router
19
Which method does a router use to build a Frame Relay map?
ARP requests
RARP requests
Inverse RARP requests
*Inverse ARP requests
20
Routers and switches both perform important tasks in an internetwork. Which of the following are distinguishing differences between them? (Choose two.)
Routers are used more than switches.
Routers need no configuration to operate.
*Routers and switches operate at different layers of the OSI model.
Routers and switches route different sets of protocols.
*Routers block broadcasts.
Switches create broadcast domains.
21
By default, which of the following metrics is given the most weight by IGRP?
*bandwidth
hop count
load
reliability
22
Which statement is correct concerning routing and routed protocols?
*A routed protocol allows the routers to communicate with other routers and maintain tables for a routing protocol.
A routing protocol allows routers to communicate with other routers and maintain tables for a routed protocol.
Routers only need to use routing protocols to work properly.
There is no difference between routed and routing protocols.
23
What does the ISDN BRI provide?
23 B channels and one 64 kbps D channel
total bit rate up to 1.536 Mbps
two 56 kbps B channels and one 64 kbps D channel
*two 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
24
Which of the following EIGRP functions is the responsibility of the IP protocol-dependent module (PDM)? (Choose three.)
the calculation of successor and feasible successor routes for IP and IPX traffic
*the notification of DUAL when IP routing information is received
the communication of information about IP routes with neighbor routers
the maintenance of the IP routing table
*the exchange of hello packets with other IP-enabled routers
*the insertion of lowest cost paths into the routing table
25
Which of the following are functions of a WAN? (Choose three.)
*permit real-time communication between users
allow users access to high bandwidth
provide full-time local service
*provide e-mail and e-commerce services
connect physically adjacent devices
*provide access to computers in other locations
26
Which command will display statistics for all interfaces configured on a router?
list interfaces
*show interfaces
show processes
show statistics
27
What enables routers to learn of destination networks?
proxy ARP
CAM table exchanges
host name tables
*routing protocols
DNS lookups
28
Which type of handshaking occurs when using CHAP?
one-way
two-way
*three-way
four-way
29
Which statement describes the store and forward transmission mode of an Ethernet switch?
It is also referred to as a hybrid mode or as error sensing mode.
It requires the switch to read the first 64 bytes of an Ethernet frame and then begins to forward the data.
It decreases the latency of the transmission but has very little error detection.
*It increases latency with large frames, but error detection is high.
30
When must data be sent by way of the default route?
The destination network is on a different network than the source.
The destination network is not directly connected to the router.
The destination network is a stub network.
*There is no entry in the routing table for the destination network.
31
Which statements describe the use of Link State Advertisements (LSA)? (Choose two.)
*LSAs are generated when changes in the network occur.
Link state advertisements are refreshed every 60 minutes.
The router copies the information received from each LSA packet into the routing table.
*Routers exchange LSAs to build and maintain topology databases.
Forwarding LSAs can increase the occurrence of routing loops.
32
Identify the correct pairing of a protocol and its classification.
BGP-Interior
IGRP-Exterior
OSPF-Exterior
*RIP-Interior
33
Which of the following is the ISDN Layer 2 signaling protocol?
BRI
PRI
LAPA
*LAPD
34
What transmission channels are provided by an ISDN BRI service?
23 64 kbps B channels and one 64 kbps D channel
30 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
two 56 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
*two 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
two 64 kbps D channels and one 16 kbps B channel
23 64 kbps D channels and one 64 kbps B channel
35
The switches in the graphic are configured for VTP as shown. Select the statements that correctly describe the operation of these switches. (Choose two.)
A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.
An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.
*A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.
*An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2.
36
What is the default ISDN encapsulation used on Cisco ISDN routers?
SLIP
PPP
*HDLC
VPP
37
Which of the following represents a group of routers under a common administration and is required when configuring routing protocols such as IGRP or EIGRP?
control group
*autonomous system
corporate system
Domain Name System
local-area network
wide-area network
38
Given a router that has already been configured, what is the correct loading sequence when powering on?
bootstrap, RAM, operating system
bootstrap, configuration file, operating system
*bootstrap, operating system, configuration file
operating system, configuration file, RAM
39
Which of the following are routed protocols?
AppleTalk, IP, IGRP
*IP, AppleTalk, IPX
IP, RIP, IPX
IPX, OSPF, EIGRP
40
Which functions are carried out by switches and bridges when building the CAM tables? (Choose three.)
builds the table using unknown source MAC addresses from received frames
builds the table using unknown destination MAC addresses from received frames
*time stamps the entries for each address
*time stamps the BPDU of each frame received
*maps switch port numbers with the associated MAC address
maps switch port numbers with the associated network address
41
All the routers in the network shown in the graphic are part of the same OSPF area. All the routers were powered up simultaneously, except Router E, which was brought online the following day. Which router will be the BDR after the network has converged?
Router A
Router B
Router C
Router D
*Router E
42
Which reason is correct for having at least one true condition in an ACL?
If there is not a true statement, all packets are returned to the sender.
*The implicit "deny any" statement will deny all traffic.
True conditions only test the status of the router.
You are not required to have a true statement in ACL.
43
Which layer is responsible for organizing bits using framing?
Layer 1
*Layer 2
Layer 3
Layer 4
1
Which of the following are benefits of creating a subnetwork structure in an IP network? (Choose three.)
permits network address duplication
*allows for address flexibility
*prevents address replication
provides broadcast containment
adds low-level security
*allows for more network hosts available
2
Refer to the graphic. Which of the following are true regarding the route summary EIGRP would utilize for the networks on RouterA? (Choose two.)
The networks can be summarized with auto-summary.
*The network summary must be manually configured.
The default subnet mask can be used to summarize the networks.
The networks can be summarized with 172.16.64.0/26.
*The networks can be summarized with 172.16.64.0/27.
The networks can be summarized with 172.16.64.0/28.
3
Which address does a bridge use to build its bridging table?
destination IP address
*destination MAC address
source IP address
source MAC address
4
Which of the following do switches send at regular intervals to eliminate switching loops?
bi-directional protocol data units
binary protocol data units
*bridge protocol data units
buffered protocol data units
5
What is required to configure multiple DLCIs on a single router interface?
A single network address
Multiple LMIs
*Subinterfaces
Multiple IP addresses on the same subnet
6
Which component designates a device that is not compatible with ISDN and requires a terminal adapter?
NT1
*NT2
TE1
TE2
7
What is an advantage of the use of layers in the OSI reference model?
It breaks network communications into larger parts.
It increases complexity.
*It prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers.
It requires the use of single-vendor equipment for hardware and software communications.
8
What is the purpose of the show CDP neighbors command?
to send a summary of the local router configuration to all directly attached Cisco devices
*to display information about all Cisco devices that are directly connected to a local router
to display information about all Cisco networks in the WAN
to display addressing information about all remote routers
to display the names of all OSPF neighbors in the local area
9
Which type of ACL only checks the source address?
Extended ACL
General ACL
Source ACL
*Standard ACL
10
Which of the following improves security in PPP authentication?
LCP
NCP
*CHAP
PAP
11
For which condition will the ARP protocol be used?
The destination IP address is unknown.
*The destination MAC address is unknown.
The source IP address is unknown.
The source MAC address is unknown.
12
What is the name of that point in a LAN where the responsibility of the network administrator ends and the responsibility of the telco begins?
point of presence
local loop
DTE
*demarcation
13
What determines how much data a sending station running TCP/IP can transmit before it must receive an acknowledgment?
segment size
transmission rate
*bandwidth
window size
sequence number
14
Which utility can be used to verify connectivity through all seven layers of the OSI model?
netstat
ping
*Telnet
traceroute
15
Which statements about VLANs are true? (Choose three.)
VLANs are restricted to a physical segment.
*They are logical groupings of devices.
*User hosts can be grouped by function.
*VLANs are configured by software.
VLANs are standardized.
16
Which of the following IP addresses are broadcast addresses if the subnet mask is 255.255.255.240? (Choose three.)
*75.32.75.15
205.16.35.11
*199.254.129.111
*129.130.17.143
135.22.55.93
105.33.62.213
17
Which networking device performs path determination?
a hub
a switch
*a router
a bridge
18
Which device allows data communication to occur between VLANs?
bridge
hub
switch
*router
19
Which method does a router use to build a Frame Relay map?
ARP requests
RARP requests
Inverse RARP requests
*Inverse ARP requests
20
Routers and switches both perform important tasks in an internetwork. Which of the following are distinguishing differences between them? (Choose two.)
Routers are used more than switches.
Routers need no configuration to operate.
*Routers and switches operate at different layers of the OSI model.
Routers and switches route different sets of protocols.
*Routers block broadcasts.
Switches create broadcast domains.
21
By default, which of the following metrics is given the most weight by IGRP?
*bandwidth
hop count
load
reliability
22
Which statement is correct concerning routing and routed protocols?
*A routed protocol allows the routers to communicate with other routers and maintain tables for a routing protocol.
A routing protocol allows routers to communicate with other routers and maintain tables for a routed protocol.
Routers only need to use routing protocols to work properly.
There is no difference between routed and routing protocols.
23
What does the ISDN BRI provide?
23 B channels and one 64 kbps D channel
total bit rate up to 1.536 Mbps
two 56 kbps B channels and one 64 kbps D channel
*two 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
24
Which of the following EIGRP functions is the responsibility of the IP protocol-dependent module (PDM)? (Choose three.)
the calculation of successor and feasible successor routes for IP and IPX traffic
*the notification of DUAL when IP routing information is received
the communication of information about IP routes with neighbor routers
the maintenance of the IP routing table
*the exchange of hello packets with other IP-enabled routers
*the insertion of lowest cost paths into the routing table
25
Which of the following are functions of a WAN? (Choose three.)
*permit real-time communication between users
allow users access to high bandwidth
provide full-time local service
*provide e-mail and e-commerce services
connect physically adjacent devices
*provide access to computers in other locations
26
Which command will display statistics for all interfaces configured on a router?
list interfaces
*show interfaces
show processes
show statistics
27
What enables routers to learn of destination networks?
proxy ARP
CAM table exchanges
host name tables
*routing protocols
DNS lookups
28
Which type of handshaking occurs when using CHAP?
one-way
two-way
*three-way
four-way
29
Which statement describes the store and forward transmission mode of an Ethernet switch?
It is also referred to as a hybrid mode or as error sensing mode.
It requires the switch to read the first 64 bytes of an Ethernet frame and then begins to forward the data.
It decreases the latency of the transmission but has very little error detection.
*It increases latency with large frames, but error detection is high.
30
When must data be sent by way of the default route?
The destination network is on a different network than the source.
The destination network is not directly connected to the router.
The destination network is a stub network.
*There is no entry in the routing table for the destination network.
31
Which statements describe the use of Link State Advertisements (LSA)? (Choose two.)
*LSAs are generated when changes in the network occur.
Link state advertisements are refreshed every 60 minutes.
The router copies the information received from each LSA packet into the routing table.
*Routers exchange LSAs to build and maintain topology databases.
Forwarding LSAs can increase the occurrence of routing loops.
32
Identify the correct pairing of a protocol and its classification.
BGP-Interior
IGRP-Exterior
OSPF-Exterior
*RIP-Interior
33
Which of the following is the ISDN Layer 2 signaling protocol?
BRI
PRI
LAPA
*LAPD
34
What transmission channels are provided by an ISDN BRI service?
23 64 kbps B channels and one 64 kbps D channel
30 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
two 56 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
*two 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
two 64 kbps D channels and one 16 kbps B channel
23 64 kbps D channels and one 64 kbps B channel
35
The switches in the graphic are configured for VTP as shown. Select the statements that correctly describe the operation of these switches. (Choose two.)
A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.
An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.
*A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.
*An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2.
36
What is the default ISDN encapsulation used on Cisco ISDN routers?
SLIP
PPP
*HDLC
VPP
37
Which of the following represents a group of routers under a common administration and is required when configuring routing protocols such as IGRP or EIGRP?
control group
*autonomous system
corporate system
Domain Name System
local-area network
wide-area network
38
Given a router that has already been configured, what is the correct loading sequence when powering on?
bootstrap, RAM, operating system
bootstrap, configuration file, operating system
*bootstrap, operating system, configuration file
operating system, configuration file, RAM
39
Which of the following are routed protocols?
AppleTalk, IP, IGRP
*IP, AppleTalk, IPX
IP, RIP, IPX
IPX, OSPF, EIGRP
40
Which functions are carried out by switches and bridges when building the CAM tables? (Choose three.)
builds the table using unknown source MAC addresses from received frames
builds the table using unknown destination MAC addresses from received frames
*time stamps the entries for each address
*time stamps the BPDU of each frame received
*maps switch port numbers with the associated MAC address
maps switch port numbers with the associated network address
41
All the routers in the network shown in the graphic are part of the same OSPF area. All the routers were powered up simultaneously, except Router E, which was brought online the following day. Which router will be the BDR after the network has converged?
Router A
Router B
Router C
Router D
*Router E
42
Which reason is correct for having at least one true condition in an ACL?
If there is not a true statement, all packets are returned to the sender.
*The implicit "deny any" statement will deny all traffic.
True conditions only test the status of the router.
You are not required to have a true statement in ACL.
43
Which layer is responsible for organizing bits using framing?
Layer 1
*Layer 2
Layer 3
Layer 4
44
What is the purpose of the IOS enable secret command?
*to set password protection on incoming Telnet sessions
to set password protection on the console terminal
to allow a user access to User mode
to allow a user to enter a password that will be encrypted
45
What reduces the problems of routing loops due to incorrect updates?
count to infinity
distance vector timers
event-triggered updates
*split horizon
46
Which of the following is true regarding routing metrics?
All routing protocols use the same metrics.
IGRP uses bandwidth as its only metric.
*Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.
The larger metric generally represents the better path.
47
Which of the following messages are sent from a DHCP server to a client during a successful configuration process? (Choose two.)
DHCPDISCOVER
*DHCPOFFER
*DHCPREQUEST
DHCPACK
48
What are the effects of LAN segmentation using a switch? (Choose three.)
*dedicated bandwidth between source and destinations
*enlarged collision domains
decreased broadcast domains
*increased number of collision domains
increased latency in the network
49
The Cake router shown in the graphic has multiple RIP version 2 paths to the network attached to E0 of the Pie router. Which interface on the Cake router will be used to forward a packet from the 192.168.5.0 network to the 192.168.13.0 network?
E0
*E1
S0
S1
It will load balance across S0 and S1.
It will load balance across S0, S1 and E1.
50
What is true about windowing?
It always requires separate acknowledgements for each segment sent.
*It controls the amount of data that can be sent before acknowledgement is required.
It requires the sender to re-establish a connection if no acknowledgement is received.
It allows TCP/IP to measure transmitted data in segments.
51
Company XYZ has a Class B address of 135.166.0.0 and currently has 4 individual segments to subnet. The company will be adding 5 additional segments over this year and 7 additional networks the following year. What subnet mask should be used on the network in order to support the largest number of hosts per subnet?
255.255.224.0
*255.255.240.0
255.255.248.0
255.255.250.0
255.255.252.0
52
Which of the following is true regarding latency?
CSMA/CD requires no latency.
It is also called asymmetry.
It is based entirely on distance.
*Networking devices add to latency.
53
What is the length, in bits, of an Ethernet address?
12
24
32
*48
80
128
54
How many bits are in IPv6 addresses?
16
32
64
96
*128
258
55
If the above network has been configured with RIPv2, how many usable host addresses are in the 192.168.10.192 subnet?
0
*2
4
6
8
56
Which methods do frame relay switches use to inform DTEs of congestion within the frame relay network?
CCP and LMI
CIR and LATE
DLCI and SPID
*FECN and BECN
57
What is the term for the cabling that connects the customer premises equipment to the CO switch?
demarc
local loop
final mile
*DTE
trunk line
58
An administrator has an older 1900 switch located on the edge of the network. What can the network administrator do to ensure that it does not become the root bridge of the spanning-tree network?
decrease the BPDU hello timer update on the 1900
assign the highest IP address to the switch that should be the root
assign the lowest IP address to new root bridge
*assign the lowest priority to the switch that should be the root
assign the highest priority to the new root bridge
decrease the BID on the 1900 switch
59
How is the number 225 represented in binary?
11001111
11011011
11110011
*11100001
60
What is the function of the first phase of PPP negotiation?
link termination
authentication of communicating peers
*link establishment and configuration
network layer protocol configuration
CCNA 4 - Module 6 Exam Answers
1 For which platform was UNIX first marketed commercially?
• workstations and servers
• workstations
* network servers
• large mainframe systems
• workstations and servers
• workstations
* network servers
• large mainframe systems
2 How does RMON gather statistics on a segment?
• analyzes traps on the segment
• polls packets on the segment
* analyzes every frame on the segment
• analyzes source and destination addresses
3 Which operating systems support multiuser capability? (Choose three.)
* Linux
• Windows 98
• Windows ME
* Windows XP
* Windows 2000
4 Which statements are true regarding configuring SNMP? (Choose three.)
• It is best to use the default read-only community strings in enterprise networks.
* It is not advisable to use the default read-write community string in an enterprise network.
* More than one read-only community string is supported.
* Authorized management stations can modify MIB objects with read-write access specified.
• The maximum number of read-write strings supported is one.
5 Which statements describe the Windows 2000 operating system family? (Choose three.)
* .NET Server was designed to run enterprise level web and FTP services.
• Active Directory services run on both Windows 2000 Professional and Windows 2000 Server.
* The entire family of Windows 2000 operating systems can operate as a file, print, FTP or web server.
• Both Windows 2000 Professional and Server can support up to 256 simultaneous dialup sessions.
* .NET server was designed to compete with Linux and Unix.
6 Which of the following is a collection of software which includes a GUI interface to allow the network administrator to monitor and manage the network?
* network management application
• network management agent
• management information base
• network management protocol
7 Which command would enable logging on all supported destinations?
• Router(config)# logging 131.152.0.0
• Router(config)# logging routerA
* Router(config)# logging on
• Router(config)# logging enable
8 How does SNMPv3 address the security shortcomings of SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c?
• improved SMI features
• support for centralized and distributed management
* secure access to MIBs
• control of heterogeneous networks
9 Which means of communication does an SNMP network agent use to provide a network management station with important but unsolicited information?
• query
• broadcast
• ICMP ping
* trap
• poll
10 Which of the following describes the community strings used for SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c? (Choose two.)
* The community strings are sent using UDP.
• The read only string on most devices is set to private.
• The read/write string on most devices is set to public.
• Only the NMA needs to be configured with the community strings.
* The community strings are sent across the network in cleartext.
11
In the above illustration, which configuration commands can be used to specify the location of a managed device and the main system contacts for the device? (Choose two.)
• SanJose(config-if)# snmp-server SanJose
* Atlanta(config)# snmp-server contact JPSmith
• Atlanta(config)# snmp contact JPSmith
* SanJose(config)# snmp-server location SanJose
• Chicago#(config)# snmp chicago
12 Which features are supported by the Mac OS X system that make it a competitive choice for operating systems? (Choose four.)
* protected memory
• sixty-two bit addressing
* preemptive multitasking
• open source operating system code
* symmetric multiprocessing
* Appletalk-to-Windows network connectivity
13 An SNMPv1 agent would issue a GetResponse message to reply to which NMS requests? (Choose three.)
* GetRequest
• GetBulkRequest
* GetNextRequest
* SetRequest
• GetNextbulkRequest
14 Why are SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c community strings considered a security risk?
• SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c encapsulations are not encrypted by default.
* SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c community strings are sent as cleartext.
• SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c are limited to 32-bit counters.
• SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c uses a connectionless protocol.
15 Which of the following does SNMP use to hold information collected about the network?
• network management station
• network management database
* management information base
• database information agent
16 Which of the following are examples of network management applications? (Choose two.)
• Windows 2000 Professional
* Ciscoworks2000
* HP Openview
• Red Hat Linux
• Cisco ConfigMaker
ALICIA KEYS - NO ONE
"No One", an R&B/soul song written and produced by American singer-songwriter Alicia Keys and American songwriters/producers Kerry Brothers, Jr. and George D. Harry for Keys' third studio album, As I Am (2007). Released as the album's lead single in September 2007.
Alicia Keys Lyrics
TIMBERLAND FEAT KERI HILSON & NICOLE SCHERZINGER- SCREAM
Scream,new video by Timberland feat. Keri Hilson & Nicole Scherzinger. Timberland will follow up the success of the first "shock value" with the second wave, which is slated to hit the stores in 2008. This video has been listed by Yahoo! Music.
Timbaland-Scream Lyrics
BEYONCE SET TO PLAY ETTA JAMES
R&B star Beyonce Knowles is set to play famed blues singer Etta James in new movie Cadillac Records. The Dreamgirls actress will join Adrien Brody, Jeffrey Wright and Cedric the Entertainer in the 1950s-set film, reports AOL.com. Filming is due to take place later this year in New Jersey and Mississippi.
JENNIFER LOPEZ & MARC ANTHONY DO DISNEY
"Disney Dream Portrait Series", taken by famous photographer Annie Liebovitz to celebrate Disney Parks's "Year of a Million Dreams". One of newly released pics features Jennifer Lopez with husband, Salsa singer. Lopez is portrayed as Jasmine and Anthony as Aladdin in a "Whole New World" scene, while Biel is dressed as Pocahontas, running through a forest.
LIL WAYNE HIT WITH FELONY GRUG AND WEAPONS CHARGES
Three days after border police stopped him at a checkpoint and turned up a variety of drugs including cocaine and handguns on his tour bus, Lil Wayne was hit with felony drug and weapons charges in a Yuma, Arizona, courtroom.
RIHANNA- DON'T STOP THE MUSIC (REMIX)
"Don't Stop the Music" is a song by Barbadian singer Rihanna from her third studio album, Good Girl Gone Bad (2007). It was the third single from the album in most of Europe, and the fourth single in the rest of the world. "Don't Stop the Music" received a Grammy nomination in the category of "Best Dance Recording" at the 50th Grammy Awards.
Rihanna- Don't Stop the Music Lyrics
LUDACRIS FEAT RICK ROSS & BUN B-DOWN IN THE DIRTY
Check out this new music video of Ludacris’, “Down In The Dirty” featuring Bun B and Rick Ross. The song was produced by Clinton Sparks and the video was directed by Dr. Teeth and Chaka Zulu. This will be the next single from DTP’s Strength In Numbers compilation.
Ludacris- Down In The Dirty Lyrics
KHIA FEAT GUCCI MANE - WHAT THEY DO
Khia back with a new song! The song is called "What They Do" and it features Gucci Mane. The song will be included in her upcoming album called "Nasty Musik".
BRITNEY SPEARS - ALL THAT SHE WANTS
A new demo song from Miss Britney Spears has been leaked. The song is called "All That She Wants". The song cover from the band Ace Of Base.
Britney Spears- All That She Wants Lyrics
SHAKIRA - HAY AMORES [Official Music Video]
This is the new video of Sharika called "Hay Amores". The song along with "Las Despidida" are chosen as the soundtrack for the movie "Love in the Time of Cholera".
Hay Amores Lyrics
PAULA ABDUL - DANCE LIKE THERE'S NO TOMORROW (HQ)
This is a high definition mp3 file from Paula Adbul. The song is called "Dance Like There's No Tomorrow". This song is included from Randy Jackson's upcoming album "Randy Jackson's Music Club, Vol. 1". This would also be the first single to his album.
Paula Abdul- Dance Like There's No Tomorrow Lyrics
NATASHA BEDINGFIELD - POCKETFUL OF SUNSHINE BONUS TRACKS
We realized that after an album has been out and leaked we wait for the album bonus tracks. Well here it is, 3 bonus track from Natasha Bedingfield's newest album "Pocketful of Sunshine". The tracks are "Unwritten", a stripped acoustic version, "Love Like This" an acoustic version from Bleu Room and "Cheer Me Up". We already heard "Unwritten" and "Love Like This" many times before but these version are fantastic. Her amazing voice really came out effortlessly.
BRANDY - THIS MUST BE LOVE
It has been later confirmed that this new song of Brandy will not be included in her new album. Produced by Robert Smith the song called "This Must Be Love" is actually an unreleased track from the album "FullMoon".
BRANDY - THIS MUST BE LOVE
ENRIQUE IGLESIAS FEAT LIL WAYNE - PUSH
This is the 3rd single of Fil-Am hunky Enrique Iglesias. The song is called "Push" and features Lil' Wayne. The song "Push" is included in Enrique Iglesias's current album titled "Insomiac". The song is upbeat, fast and danceable. Catchy chorus too, no wonder this song has been added to the movie soundtrack of "Step Up 2".
MADONNA - KEEP THE TRANCE
I've heard the demo before and now here comes the full song. This song called "Keep The Trance" has not been included to Madonna's current album titled "Confessions On A Dance Floor". We hear B-Sides and bonus tracks to the album but this track is nowhere to be found.
N.E.R.D. - EVERYBODY NOSE
N.E.R.D.'s upcoming album. The song is titled "Everybody Nose".
MICHAEL JACKSON FEAT AKON - WANNA BE STARTIN' SOMETHING
Michael Jackson is back with his upcoming album called "Thriller 25". The album includes collaboration with some of the top artist, names such as Fergie, Will.I.Am, Akon, Ne-Yo and Kanye West.
LOHAN GETS ROUGH JUSTICE
Lindsay Lohan has gotten a harsh assignment as part of her community service for misdemeanor drunk driving. The Associated Press reported that the 21-year-old actress will be working two four-hour days at a morgue as part of her court-ordered program meant to show drivers the real-life consequences of drunk driving. Lohan — who must serve 10 days of community service as part of her plea deal — worked at an American Red Cross blood-services facility in a Los Angeles suburb in November. She has also been ordered to spend two days working in a hospital emergency room.
SPEARS SPENDS TWO HOURS IN DEPOSITION
Britney Spears spent more than two hours at the Los Angeles office of Kevin Federline's lawyer, Mark Vincent Kaplan, on Monday (January 21) for an ongoing deposition in the former couple's custody battle, according to People.com. Spears was videotaped driving up to the office, accompanied by friend Sam Lufti, at around 10:40 a.m. PT and left at around 1:20 p.m.
USHER'S FATHER PASSES AWAY
Usher's father, Usher Raymond III, passed away at an Atlanta hospital on Friday, a rep for the singer confirmed to MTV News. The cause of death was not immediately known; People.com reported that the funeral will take place this week at the Taylor Funeral Home in Chattanooga, Tennessee.
ALANIS MORISSETTE - UNDERNEATH (New 2008)
Underneath is the new song from Alanis Morissette which will be on her 2008 album Flavors of Entanglement and it made its debut at the Elevate Film Festival on 15 September 2007. Video captured by Adam - All Hail The Goddess.
CRAIG DAVID- 6 OF 1 THING
Craig David has decided that the track entitled “6 of 1 Thing” will be the second single off his “Trust Me” album. David has also recently premiered a music video for the song.
EDUARDO CRUZ FEAT. PENELOPE CRUZ -"Cosas Que Contar"
Penelope Cruz's younger brother Eduardo Cruz has launched a music career, which, gets a lot of help from his sisters' act. Penelope and Monica assisted him by appearing in a raunchy music video for his song 'Cosas que contar'. Penelope and Monica played translators for a lesbian porn movie and got in the mood themselves. They were then engaged in a passionate scene where at one point Penelope seductively bite the lower lip of Monica.
Cisco CCNA 4 Exam 2 answer
Cisco CCNA 4 Exam 2 answer
1 Which statement is true regarding WAN technologies?
Most WANS use only one technology throughout the infrastructure such as ISDN, Frame Relay or ATM.
Data transfer speeds on the WAN are typically faster than the speeds on a LAN.
*WANs operate at the lower three layers of the OSI model.
WANs are unable to support the transfer of voice or video traffic.
2 Which of the following are disadvantages of circuit-switched networks? (Choose two.)
Data is subject to unpredictable delays while it waits for other subscribers to transmit data.
* The connection capacity is used inefficiently due to irregular traffic bursts.
Data delivery is less reliable because only connectionless delivery methods are used.
* Circuit-switched networks are more expensive for data traffic.
Circuit-switched networks are less expensive for 24/7 data traffic.
3 A company requires a WAN connection that will carry 64 kbps and allow fast call setup time. The connection does not need to carry video. What is the best choice for this company?
ATM
ISDN BRI
X.25
* analog dialup
4 Which of the following is commonly used as Data Terminal Equipment?
ISDN
* modem
router
CSU/DSU
5 Why is it important to identify the type of traffic that will be carried on the WAN links before choosing a WAN technology?
to determine the routing protocol to be used on the WAN link
to determine the WAN topology
* to determine the requirements for latency and jitter
to determine the type of signaling protocol to be used on the WAN link
6 On which of the following are most Layer 2 WAN encapsulations based?
IP
PPP
* HDLC
SLIP
HSSI
CSU
7 Which term describes the cabling that connects the customer site to the nearest exchange of the WAN service provider?
CPE
CO
* local loop
DCE
DTE
8 A European company needs a low cost, dialup WAN connection to validate transactions for point-of-sale card readers. Which connection type is commonly used for this situation?
ATM
* X.25
Frame Relay
Leased lines
9 Which of the following describes a packet-switched network using connection-oriented data transfer? (Choose two.)
* Each packet carries an identifier.
Each packet carries full addressing information.
Each switch in the route must evaluate the addressing information to determine where to send the packet.
* Each switch determines where to send the packet by examining tables in memory.
The addressing information is used to set switches along the route of data transfer to create a continuous copper circuit.
10 A large company already has a T1 leased line but this connection is inadequate at peak business hours. Furthermore, they would like a backup WAN connection in case their leased line temporarily fails. What type of WAN connection is commonly used in this situation?
X.25
DSL
* ISDN
cable modem
56 kbps
11 Depending on the company size and geographical layout, there might be many end points on the company WAN. Why is it important to identify all the end points of the WAN before choosing a WAN design?
to determine the routing protocol to be used on the WAN link
* to determine the WAN topology
to determine the requirements for latency and jitter
to determine the signaling protocol to be used on the WAN link
12 A new international company needs to have a design for WAN connectivity. The company will have at least five offices in every state in the United States and Mexico. Some states will have as many as 20 offices. The branch offices will require constant contact with the services of the main office. Which design model is best for WAN connectivity in this situation?
a mesh network of all branch WANs
a simple star topology connecting all branch LANs to a central router with multiple interfaces
a one layer design using Frame Relay links between LANs
* a three layer hierarchical topology interconnecting branch LANs within an area, the area LANs within a region, and connecting the regions to form the core of the WAN
13 Which statements are correct regarding ATM connections? (Choose two.)
uses only PVCs
* is useful for video transfers
* has data rates beyond 155 Mbps
cells have 32 byte payload and a 5 byte overhead
mandates single virtual circuits on a single leased line connection
14 Which of the following is true of WANs?
Shared network WAN technologies such as Frame Relay and ATM are more expensive but offer less latency and jitter than dedicated lines.
ISDN is suitable for large enterprises.
* The more network devices that data has to pass through across the WAN, the more latency and less reliability the network will experience.
WANs typically incorporate only one technology such as ISDN, Frame Relay, or ATM.
15 Which of the following connections will provide the equivalent of a T1/E1 connection and is intended for large businesses?
BRI
* PRI
DLCI
PSTN
POTS
16 A company only requires a WAN connection to transfer sales data from individual stores to the home office. All transfers will occur after business hours. They estimate they will never need a connection faster than 56 kbps. Which type of connection is best for this company?
ATM
ISDN
* analog dialup
T1 Leased Line
17 Which of the statements regarding DSL are correct? (Choose three.)
DSL provides a consistent bandwidth of 2.154 Mbps.
DSL connections provide a fast dialup to establish a WAN connection.
* DSL connects the local loop to a digital subscriber line access multiplexer.
* DSL bandwidth varies and can exceed the bandwidth of a T1/E1 leased line.
* For DSL to function properly, the local loop must be less than 5.5 kilometers (3.5 miles).
DSL is a popular choice for enterprises that need to connect home users to the local network due to strong security.
Cisco CCNA 4 Exam 3 answer
Cisco CCNA 4 Exam 3 answer
1 Which of the following describe functions of the Point-to-Point protocol with regards to the OSI model? (Choose three.)
PPP uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices.
PPP operates at all layers of the OSI model.
*PPP uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression. ¡Ì
*PPP provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols. ¡Ì
PPP uses Network Control Protocols (NCP) to test and maintain connectivity between devices.
*PPP can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces. ¡Ì
2 What can be concluded from the output shown in the graphic? (Choose three.)
A two-way handshake is occuring.
*The LCPs were already negotiated. ¡Ì
*The router can begin NCP negotiations. ¡Ì
The debug ppp negotiation command was executed.
*The debug ppp authentication command was executed. ¡Ì
3 Which command specifies a link quality over a PPP link?
ppp link 50
ppp link quality 60
ppp percentage 80
*ppp quality 90 ¡Ì
4 Refer to the output of the show interface Serial0/0 command in the graphic. How many NCPs have been established?
1
*2
3
4
5 Which authentication protocol can be spoofed to allow playback attacks?
MD5
CHAP
*PAP
NCP
6 Which of the following is an advantage of using time-division multiplexing (TDM) for transmitting data? (Choose two.)
It allows a single source to transmit over multiple data channels.
*Multiple sources can transmit over a single channel. ¡Ì
*Original data streams must be reconstructed at the destination. ¡Ì
TDM relies on Layer 3 protocols to operate.
7 Several tasks must occur before a link between two routers can pass data using PPP. Which of the following are required to establish and maintain a PPP session between two routers?
configure each host with a PPP address
configure authentication between the two routers
* send LCP and NCP frames to negotiate configuration parameters ¡Ì
send hostname and password information between the two routers
8 Which of the following is a reason for using such protocols as PAP and CHAP?
to establish a PPP session
to provide error checking on a WAN link
* to restrict access to networks connected by serial and ISDN links
to provide a backup hostname and privilege mode password on the router
9 PPP uses several protocols for communication. Which of the following are options that the LCP protocol in the PPP architecture can provide? (Choose two.)
* testing the quality of the link
routing packets between devices
assigning individual station addresses
configuring network layer protocols
* negotiating authentication options
10 How is the MD5 function valuable in authentication? (Choose two.)
* uses a one-way hash function
authentication occurs more rapidly
* challenges are unique
the remote router assumes control of frequency of challenge
the remote router assumes control of timing of challenge
11 A technician has used Telnet to gain remote access to a router that has no connectivity on its serial interface. Which command should be issued to determine if the serial cable is connected properly?
* show controllers
show processes
show run
show status
12 Which advantage does the multilink option provide when using PPP?
* Data transmission has load balancing possibilities.
Interfaces can be configured using both HDLC and PPP.
More than one authentication method can be used.
More than one compression protocol can be configured.
13 Which of the following describes the CHAP protocol? (Choose three.)
* exchanges a random challenge number during the session to verfiy identity
sends authentication password to verify identity
*prevents transmission of login information in plain text
*disconnects the PPP session if authentication fails
initiates a two-way handshake
14 How did Cisco alter the HDLC encapsulation to allow a single link to carry multiple protocols?
split the transmissions into multiple channels each carrying a single protocol
identified the protocol in the FCS field
compressed the datagrams differently for each protocol
* added a type field to identify the protocol
15 A technician is testing the functionality of a recently installed router. The technician is unable to ping the serial interface of a remote router. The technician executes the show interface serial 0/0 command on the local router and receives the following output:
Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down(disabled)
What are possible causes for this command output? (Choose two.)
interface missing the no shutdown command
clockrate command missing
*CSU/DSU failed
*interface shutdown due to high error rate
cable missing
16 Which command was used to display the partial output shown in the graphic?
show ppp traffic
show lcp traffic
* debug ppp negotiation
debug ppp authentication
17 Which of the following describes the High-Level Data Link Control protocol? (Choose three.)
* HDLC provides flow and error control.
Standard HDLC supports multiple protocols on a single link.
* HDLC uses sequencing and acknowledgements.
HDLC is defined as the default encapsulation on Cisco LAN interfaces.
* Cisco implemented a proprietary version of HDLC.
18 A two router network is running PPP over the serial interfaces that connect them. The enable password on the Denim router is "gateway". The Denim router also has a locally configured authentication password for the Plaid router which is "fortress". Which command must be executed on the Plaid router to allow Denim to authenticate to the Plaid router using CHAP?
Plaid(config)# enable secret gateway
Plaid(config)# enable secret fortress
Plaid(config)# username Plaid password fortress
* Plaid(config)# username Denim password fortress
Plaid(config)# hostname Plaid secret password gateway
Plaid(config)# hostname Plaid secret password fortress
19 ISDN BRI service uses two B channels to send data, voice, and video. If the first channel becomes saturated, the second channel can be configured to forward packets. Which command will allow ISDN to load balance across both links?
Router(config-if)# ppp quality 2
Router(config-if)# ip variance
Router(config-if)# ip maximum-paths 2
* Router(config-if)# ppp multilink
20 When troubleshooting the Serial 0/0 interface of a router, a technician issues the show controllers command. The following was the output of the command:
Interface is Serial0/0, electrical interface is UNKNOWN.
What can be concluded about the Serial 0/0 interface? (Choose three.)
* Serial0/0 is down, line protocol is down
Serial0/0 is down, line protocol is up
Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down
The interface is neither DCE or DTE.
* The interface hardware may be faulty.
* The cabling may be improperly connected.
Cisco CCNA 4 Exam 3 answer
Cisco CCNA 4 Exam 3 answer
1 Which of the following describe functions of the Point-to-Point protocol with regards to the OSI model? (Choose three.)
PPP uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices.
PPP operates at all layers of the OSI model.
*PPP uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression. ¡Ì
*PPP provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols. ¡Ì
PPP uses Network Control Protocols (NCP) to test and maintain connectivity between devices.
*PPP can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces. ¡Ì
2 What can be concluded from the output shown in the graphic? (Choose three.)
A two-way handshake is occuring.
*The LCPs were already negotiated. ¡Ì
*The router can begin NCP negotiations. ¡Ì
The debug ppp negotiation command was executed.
*The debug ppp authentication command was executed. ¡Ì
3 Which command specifies a link quality over a PPP link?
ppp link 50
ppp link quality 60
ppp percentage 80
*ppp quality 90 ¡Ì
4 Refer to the output of the show interface Serial0/0 command in the graphic. How many NCPs have been established?
1
*2
3
4
5 Which authentication protocol can be spoofed to allow playback attacks?
MD5
CHAP
*PAP
NCP
6 Which of the following is an advantage of using time-division multiplexing (TDM) for transmitting data? (Choose two.)
It allows a single source to transmit over multiple data channels.
*Multiple sources can transmit over a single channel. ¡Ì
*Original data streams must be reconstructed at the destination. ¡Ì
TDM relies on Layer 3 protocols to operate.
7 Several tasks must occur before a link between two routers can pass data using PPP. Which of the following are required to establish and maintain a PPP session between two routers?
configure each host with a PPP address
configure authentication between the two routers
* send LCP and NCP frames to negotiate configuration parameters ¡Ì
send hostname and password information between the two routers
8 Which of the following is a reason for using such protocols as PAP and CHAP?
to establish a PPP session
to provide error checking on a WAN link
* to restrict access to networks connected by serial and ISDN links
to provide a backup hostname and privilege mode password on the router
9 PPP uses several protocols for communication. Which of the following are options that the LCP protocol in the PPP architecture can provide? (Choose two.)
* testing the quality of the link
routing packets between devices
assigning individual station addresses
configuring network layer protocols
* negotiating authentication options
10 How is the MD5 function valuable in authentication? (Choose two.)
* uses a one-way hash function
authentication occurs more rapidly
* challenges are unique
the remote router assumes control of frequency of challenge
the remote router assumes control of timing of challenge
11 A technician has used Telnet to gain remote access to a router that has no connectivity on its serial interface. Which command should be issued to determine if the serial cable is connected properly?
* show controllers
show processes
show run
show status
12 Which advantage does the multilink option provide when using PPP?
* Data transmission has load balancing possibilities.
Interfaces can be configured using both HDLC and PPP.
More than one authentication method can be used.
More than one compression protocol can be configured.
13 Which of the following describes the CHAP protocol? (Choose three.)
* exchanges a random challenge number during the session to verfiy identity
sends authentication password to verify identity
*prevents transmission of login information in plain text
*disconnects the PPP session if authentication fails
initiates a two-way handshake
14 How did Cisco alter the HDLC encapsulation to allow a single link to carry multiple protocols?
split the transmissions into multiple channels each carrying a single protocol
identified the protocol in the FCS field
compressed the datagrams differently for each protocol
* added a type field to identify the protocol
15 A technician is testing the functionality of a recently installed router. The technician is unable to ping the serial interface of a remote router. The technician executes the show interface serial 0/0 command on the local router and receives the following output:
Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down(disabled)
What are possible causes for this command output? (Choose two.)
interface missing the no shutdown command
clockrate command missing
*CSU/DSU failed
*interface shutdown due to high error rate
cable missing
16 Which command was used to display the partial output shown in the graphic?
show ppp traffic
show lcp traffic
* debug ppp negotiation
debug ppp authentication
17 Which of the following describes the High-Level Data Link Control protocol? (Choose three.)
* HDLC provides flow and error control.
Standard HDLC supports multiple protocols on a single link.
* HDLC uses sequencing and acknowledgements.
HDLC is defined as the default encapsulation on Cisco LAN interfaces.
* Cisco implemented a proprietary version of HDLC.
18 A two router network is running PPP over the serial interfaces that connect them. The enable password on the Denim router is "gateway". The Denim router also has a locally configured authentication password for the Plaid router which is "fortress". Which command must be executed on the Plaid router to allow Denim to authenticate to the Plaid router using CHAP?
Plaid(config)# enable secret gateway
Plaid(config)# enable secret fortress
Plaid(config)# username Plaid password fortress
* Plaid(config)# username Denim password fortress
Plaid(config)# hostname Plaid secret password gateway
Plaid(config)# hostname Plaid secret password fortress
19 ISDN BRI service uses two B channels to send data, voice, and video. If the first channel becomes saturated, the second channel can be configured to forward packets. Which command will allow ISDN to load balance across both links?
Router(config-if)# ppp quality 2
Router(config-if)# ip variance
Router(config-if)# ip maximum-paths 2
* Router(config-if)# ppp multilink
20 When troubleshooting the Serial 0/0 interface of a router, a technician issues the show controllers command. The following was the output of the command:
Interface is Serial0/0, electrical interface is UNKNOWN.
What can be concluded about the Serial 0/0 interface? (Choose three.)
* Serial0/0 is down, line protocol is down
Serial0/0 is down, line protocol is up
Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down
The interface is neither DCE or DTE.
* The interface hardware may be faulty.
* The cabling may be improperly connected.
»» read more
1 Which of the following describe functions of the Point-to-Point protocol with regards to the OSI model? (Choose three.)
PPP uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices.
PPP operates at all layers of the OSI model.
*PPP uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression. ¡Ì
*PPP provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols. ¡Ì
PPP uses Network Control Protocols (NCP) to test and maintain connectivity between devices.
*PPP can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces. ¡Ì
2 What can be concluded from the output shown in the graphic? (Choose three.)
A two-way handshake is occuring.
*The LCPs were already negotiated. ¡Ì
*The router can begin NCP negotiations. ¡Ì
The debug ppp negotiation command was executed.
*The debug ppp authentication command was executed. ¡Ì
3 Which command specifies a link quality over a PPP link?
ppp link 50
ppp link quality 60
ppp percentage 80
*ppp quality 90 ¡Ì
4 Refer to the output of the show interface Serial0/0 command in the graphic. How many NCPs have been established?
1
*2
3
4
5 Which authentication protocol can be spoofed to allow playback attacks?
MD5
CHAP
*PAP
NCP
6 Which of the following is an advantage of using time-division multiplexing (TDM) for transmitting data? (Choose two.)
It allows a single source to transmit over multiple data channels.
*Multiple sources can transmit over a single channel. ¡Ì
*Original data streams must be reconstructed at the destination. ¡Ì
TDM relies on Layer 3 protocols to operate.
7 Several tasks must occur before a link between two routers can pass data using PPP. Which of the following are required to establish and maintain a PPP session between two routers?
configure each host with a PPP address
configure authentication between the two routers
* send LCP and NCP frames to negotiate configuration parameters ¡Ì
send hostname and password information between the two routers
8 Which of the following is a reason for using such protocols as PAP and CHAP?
to establish a PPP session
to provide error checking on a WAN link
* to restrict access to networks connected by serial and ISDN links
to provide a backup hostname and privilege mode password on the router
9 PPP uses several protocols for communication. Which of the following are options that the LCP protocol in the PPP architecture can provide? (Choose two.)
* testing the quality of the link
routing packets between devices
assigning individual station addresses
configuring network layer protocols
* negotiating authentication options
10 How is the MD5 function valuable in authentication? (Choose two.)
* uses a one-way hash function
authentication occurs more rapidly
* challenges are unique
the remote router assumes control of frequency of challenge
the remote router assumes control of timing of challenge
11 A technician has used Telnet to gain remote access to a router that has no connectivity on its serial interface. Which command should be issued to determine if the serial cable is connected properly?
* show controllers
show processes
show run
show status
12 Which advantage does the multilink option provide when using PPP?
* Data transmission has load balancing possibilities.
Interfaces can be configured using both HDLC and PPP.
More than one authentication method can be used.
More than one compression protocol can be configured.
13 Which of the following describes the CHAP protocol? (Choose three.)
* exchanges a random challenge number during the session to verfiy identity
sends authentication password to verify identity
*prevents transmission of login information in plain text
*disconnects the PPP session if authentication fails
initiates a two-way handshake
14 How did Cisco alter the HDLC encapsulation to allow a single link to carry multiple protocols?
split the transmissions into multiple channels each carrying a single protocol
identified the protocol in the FCS field
compressed the datagrams differently for each protocol
* added a type field to identify the protocol
15 A technician is testing the functionality of a recently installed router. The technician is unable to ping the serial interface of a remote router. The technician executes the show interface serial 0/0 command on the local router and receives the following output:
Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down(disabled)
What are possible causes for this command output? (Choose two.)
interface missing the no shutdown command
clockrate command missing
*CSU/DSU failed
*interface shutdown due to high error rate
cable missing
16 Which command was used to display the partial output shown in the graphic?
show ppp traffic
show lcp traffic
* debug ppp negotiation
debug ppp authentication
17 Which of the following describes the High-Level Data Link Control protocol? (Choose three.)
* HDLC provides flow and error control.
Standard HDLC supports multiple protocols on a single link.
* HDLC uses sequencing and acknowledgements.
HDLC is defined as the default encapsulation on Cisco LAN interfaces.
* Cisco implemented a proprietary version of HDLC.
18 A two router network is running PPP over the serial interfaces that connect them. The enable password on the Denim router is "gateway". The Denim router also has a locally configured authentication password for the Plaid router which is "fortress". Which command must be executed on the Plaid router to allow Denim to authenticate to the Plaid router using CHAP?
Plaid(config)# enable secret gateway
Plaid(config)# enable secret fortress
Plaid(config)# username Plaid password fortress
* Plaid(config)# username Denim password fortress
Plaid(config)# hostname Plaid secret password gateway
Plaid(config)# hostname Plaid secret password fortress
19 ISDN BRI service uses two B channels to send data, voice, and video. If the first channel becomes saturated, the second channel can be configured to forward packets. Which command will allow ISDN to load balance across both links?
Router(config-if)# ppp quality 2
Router(config-if)# ip variance
Router(config-if)# ip maximum-paths 2
* Router(config-if)# ppp multilink
20 When troubleshooting the Serial 0/0 interface of a router, a technician issues the show controllers command. The following was the output of the command:
Interface is Serial0/0, electrical interface is UNKNOWN.
What can be concluded about the Serial 0/0 interface? (Choose three.)
* Serial0/0 is down, line protocol is down
Serial0/0 is down, line protocol is up
Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down
The interface is neither DCE or DTE.
* The interface hardware may be faulty.
* The cabling may be improperly connected.
Cisco CCNA 4 Exam 4 answer
Cisco CCNA 4 Exam 4 answer
1 Which of the following are true of ISDN routers configured with dialer profiles? (Choose two.)
They do not use ACL to define interesting traffic.
* Their B channels can be configured with different subnets and encapsulation types.
* Their BRI interfaces can belong to multiple dialer pools.
They use PPP only.
They can only use the CHAP authentication protocol.
2 Which of the following describes the use of a SPID? (Choose two.)
selects the ISDN switch type
* identifies the line configuration of the BRI service
* allows multiple ISDN devices to share the local loop
designates whether a device is a TE1 or TE2
allows ISDN broadcasts
3 What is a reason why static routes are preferred over dynamic routes for DDR to operate on an ISDN interface?
An ISDN interface will not allow dynamic routing updates that use broadcast technology.
A dynamic route will take precedence over a static route because of its lower administrative distance.
Dynamic routing can never be considered interesting traffic by default.
Dialer-list configuration does not support dynamic routing.
* Dynamic routes may cause the ISDN connection to dial constantly to transmit updates.
4 What must be configured for an ISDN PRI connection? (Choose three.)
* ISDN switch type
Service Profile Identifier (SPID)
Dial-on-Demand Routing (DDR)
* PRI group time slot
* T1/E1 controller, framing type and line coding
5 You have just taken delivery of a new US standard Cisco 2620 router that includes a BRI "U" interface? Which of the following describes how this router will be connected in the ISDN network?
An external terminal adapter (TA) must be attached to the router for connectivity.
An NT1 must be connected to the router for connectivity.
* The router is a TE1 device and is ready to connect to the provider's network.
The router is a TE2 device and requires both a TA and NT1 for connectivity.
6 A network administrator is troubleshooting an ISDN connectivity problem. Users are complaining they cannot connect to the Internet. The network administrator suspects the ISDN connection attempt is timing out before a connection can be established. What command would the network administrator use to determine what the "wait for carrier" timeout value is set to?
show isdn status
show isdn active
* show dialer
show interfaces bri0/0
debug isdn q931
show ISDN interfaces
7 Which command configures an ISDN interface to use a switch type which is different from that used on other interfaces on the router?
Router(config)#switch-type switch-type
Router(config-if)#switch-type switch-type
Router(config)#isdn switch-type switch-type
* Router(config-if)#isdn switch-type switch-type
8 Which of the following protocols can be used to encapsulate data traffic sent from a router BRI interface? (Choose two.)
Link Access Protocol - Data
* High-Level Data Link Control
Logical Link Control
Serial Data Link Control
* Point to Point protocol
Binary Synchronous Control protocol
9 A small company uses an ISDN WAN link to transfer e-mail to remote sites. What command would the administrator use to determine if the ISDN link is up?
* show isdn status
show isdn active
show dialer
show interface bri0/0
debug isdn active
10 Why must routers be configured to specify the ISDN switch type?
* Switches use various implementations of Q.931.
The IOS of most routers lacks the ability to autosense the switch.
The switch must know what type of router it is communicating with.
The Layer 3 connection between the terminal equipment and the ISDN switch is not standardized.
11 Which of the following is considered out-of-band signaling?
using a frequency outside of the rated bandwidth for transmission
transmitting data over a control channel
* using a separate channel for control signals
transmitting control signals over a data channel
12 Which of the following is essential for all ISDN BRI interface configurations?
* ISDN switch type
line encoding technique
line framing method
local directory number
service profile identifier
13 Which router command would be used to enter the mode for configuring a T1 PRI connection?
* Router(config)# controller t1 {slot/port}
Router(config)# interface pri t1 {slot/port}
Router(config)# interface pri {slot/port} t1
Router(config)# controller {slot/port} t1
14 Which of the following correctly describes ISDN BRI? (Choose three.)
* two 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
* B channel is suitable for voice data
uses in-band signaling
* uses out-of-band signaling
offers the equivalent of a T1/E1 connection
twenty-three 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
15 The network administrator of XYZ company needs to configure a new ISDN router. After entering the commands shown in the graphic, the administrator tries to access the Internet but the ISDN connection does not open. If the service provider verifies that the problem is with XYZ's configuration, what is a possible cause of the problem?
The dialer map is configured incorrectly.
The encapsulation type is configured incorrectly.
* The dialer group is configured incorrectly.
The ACL is configured incorrectly.
The isdn switch-type command needs to be configured globally.
16 A network administrator is troubleshooting ISDN connectivity. The administrator suspects the problem lies with the authentication protocol. What command should the administrator use to view the authentication process between the router and the ISDN switch?
debug pap authentication
debug chap authentication
* debug ppp authentication
debug isdn authentication
17 A network administrator in Europe has been asked to provide the network with an ISDN WAN link. The router available to provide the WAN connection is a non-modular Cisco router with an S/T interface. What further equipment will be provided by the ISP for the ISDN connection?
Nothing. The router is already suitable.
BRI WAN interface card to install in the router
* an external NT1 to terminate the local loop
a TA/NT1 device to install on the router
18 Which command is used within an existing ISDN network to display current call information, including the called number?
show isdn status
* show isdn active
show interfaces bri0/0
show ip interfaces
»» read more
1 Which of the following are true of ISDN routers configured with dialer profiles? (Choose two.)
They do not use ACL to define interesting traffic.
* Their B channels can be configured with different subnets and encapsulation types.
* Their BRI interfaces can belong to multiple dialer pools.
They use PPP only.
They can only use the CHAP authentication protocol.
2 Which of the following describes the use of a SPID? (Choose two.)
selects the ISDN switch type
* identifies the line configuration of the BRI service
* allows multiple ISDN devices to share the local loop
designates whether a device is a TE1 or TE2
allows ISDN broadcasts
3 What is a reason why static routes are preferred over dynamic routes for DDR to operate on an ISDN interface?
An ISDN interface will not allow dynamic routing updates that use broadcast technology.
A dynamic route will take precedence over a static route because of its lower administrative distance.
Dynamic routing can never be considered interesting traffic by default.
Dialer-list configuration does not support dynamic routing.
* Dynamic routes may cause the ISDN connection to dial constantly to transmit updates.
4 What must be configured for an ISDN PRI connection? (Choose three.)
* ISDN switch type
Service Profile Identifier (SPID)
Dial-on-Demand Routing (DDR)
* PRI group time slot
* T1/E1 controller, framing type and line coding
5 You have just taken delivery of a new US standard Cisco 2620 router that includes a BRI "U" interface? Which of the following describes how this router will be connected in the ISDN network?
An external terminal adapter (TA) must be attached to the router for connectivity.
An NT1 must be connected to the router for connectivity.
* The router is a TE1 device and is ready to connect to the provider's network.
The router is a TE2 device and requires both a TA and NT1 for connectivity.
6 A network administrator is troubleshooting an ISDN connectivity problem. Users are complaining they cannot connect to the Internet. The network administrator suspects the ISDN connection attempt is timing out before a connection can be established. What command would the network administrator use to determine what the "wait for carrier" timeout value is set to?
show isdn status
show isdn active
* show dialer
show interfaces bri0/0
debug isdn q931
show ISDN interfaces
7 Which command configures an ISDN interface to use a switch type which is different from that used on other interfaces on the router?
Router(config)#switch-type switch-type
Router(config-if)#switch-type switch-type
Router(config)#isdn switch-type switch-type
* Router(config-if)#isdn switch-type switch-type
8 Which of the following protocols can be used to encapsulate data traffic sent from a router BRI interface? (Choose two.)
Link Access Protocol - Data
* High-Level Data Link Control
Logical Link Control
Serial Data Link Control
* Point to Point protocol
Binary Synchronous Control protocol
9 A small company uses an ISDN WAN link to transfer e-mail to remote sites. What command would the administrator use to determine if the ISDN link is up?
* show isdn status
show isdn active
show dialer
show interface bri0/0
debug isdn active
10 Why must routers be configured to specify the ISDN switch type?
* Switches use various implementations of Q.931.
The IOS of most routers lacks the ability to autosense the switch.
The switch must know what type of router it is communicating with.
The Layer 3 connection between the terminal equipment and the ISDN switch is not standardized.
11 Which of the following is considered out-of-band signaling?
using a frequency outside of the rated bandwidth for transmission
transmitting data over a control channel
* using a separate channel for control signals
transmitting control signals over a data channel
12 Which of the following is essential for all ISDN BRI interface configurations?
* ISDN switch type
line encoding technique
line framing method
local directory number
service profile identifier
13 Which router command would be used to enter the mode for configuring a T1 PRI connection?
* Router(config)# controller t1 {slot/port}
Router(config)# interface pri t1 {slot/port}
Router(config)# interface pri {slot/port} t1
Router(config)# controller {slot/port} t1
14 Which of the following correctly describes ISDN BRI? (Choose three.)
* two 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
* B channel is suitable for voice data
uses in-band signaling
* uses out-of-band signaling
offers the equivalent of a T1/E1 connection
twenty-three 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
15 The network administrator of XYZ company needs to configure a new ISDN router. After entering the commands shown in the graphic, the administrator tries to access the Internet but the ISDN connection does not open. If the service provider verifies that the problem is with XYZ's configuration, what is a possible cause of the problem?
The dialer map is configured incorrectly.
The encapsulation type is configured incorrectly.
* The dialer group is configured incorrectly.
The ACL is configured incorrectly.
The isdn switch-type command needs to be configured globally.
16 A network administrator is troubleshooting ISDN connectivity. The administrator suspects the problem lies with the authentication protocol. What command should the administrator use to view the authentication process between the router and the ISDN switch?
debug pap authentication
debug chap authentication
* debug ppp authentication
debug isdn authentication
17 A network administrator in Europe has been asked to provide the network with an ISDN WAN link. The router available to provide the WAN connection is a non-modular Cisco router with an S/T interface. What further equipment will be provided by the ISP for the ISDN connection?
Nothing. The router is already suitable.
BRI WAN interface card to install in the router
* an external NT1 to terminate the local loop
a TA/NT1 device to install on the router
18 Which command is used within an existing ISDN network to display current call information, including the called number?
show isdn status
* show isdn active
show interfaces bri0/0
show ip interfaces
Cisco CCNA 4 Exam 5 answer
Cisco CCNA 4 Exam 5 answer
1 Why are SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c community strings considered a security risk?
SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c encapsulations are not encrypted by default.
* SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c community strings are sent as cleartext.
SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c are limited to 32-bit counters.
SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c uses a connectionless protocol.
2 Which statements are true regarding configuring SNMP? (Choose three.)
It is best to use the default read-only community strings in enterprise networks.
* It is not advisable to use the default read-write community string in an enterprise network.
* More than one read-only community string is supported.
* Authorized management stations can modify MIB objects with read-write access specified.
The maximum number of read-write strings supported is one.
3 Which of the following is a collection of software which includes a GUI interface to allow the network administrator to monitor and manage the network?
* network management application
network management agent
management information base
network management protocol
4 Which of the following does SNMP use to hold information collected about the network?
network management station
network management database
* management information base
database information agent
5 Which type of information does SNMP collect about a router? (Choose three.)
routing table entries
* number of certain types of error messages received
* number of bytes in and out of a device
* status of network interfaces going up and down
number of protocols running on workstations
6 Which operating systems support multiuser capability? (Choose three.)
* Linux
Windows 98
Windows ME
* Windows XP
* Windows 2000
7 Which means of communication does an SNMP network agent use to provide a network management station with important but unsolicited information?
query
broadcast
ICMP ping
* trap
poll
8 How does RMON gather statistics on a segment?
analyzes traps on the segment
polls packets on the segment
* analyzes every frame on the segment
analyzes source and destination addresses
9 Which of the following are examples of network management applications? (Choose two.)
Windows 2000 Professional
* Ciscoworks2000
* HP Openview
Red Hat Linux
Cisco ConfigMaker
10 In the above illustration, which configuration commands can be used to specify the location of a managed device and the main system contacts for the device? (Choose two.)
SanJose(config-if)# snmp-server SanJose
* Atlanta(config)# snmp-server contact JPSmith
Atlanta(config)# snmp contact JPSmith
* SanJose(config)# snmp-server location SanJose
Chicago#(config)# snmp chicago
11 For which platform was UNIX first marketed commercially?
workstations and servers
workstations
* network servers
large mainframe systems
12 How does SNMPv3 address the security shortcomings of SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c?
improved SMI features
support for centralized and distributed management
* secure access to MIBs
control of heterogeneous networks
13 Which statements describe the Windows 2000 operating system family? (Choose three.)
* .NET Server was designed to run enterprise level web and FTP services.
Active Directory services run on both Windows 2000 Professional and Windows 2000 Server.
* The entire family of Windows 2000 operating systems can operate as a file, print, FTP or web server.
Both Windows 2000 Professional and Server can support up to 256 simultaneous dialup sessions.
* .NET server was designed to compete with Linux and Unix.
14 An SNMPv1 agent would issue a GetResponse message to reply to which NMS requests? (Choose three.)
* GetRequest
GetBulkRequest
* GetNextRequest
* SetRequest
GetNextbulkRequest
15 Which of the following describes the community strings used for SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c? (Choose two.)
* The community strings are sent using UDP.
The read only string on most devices is set to private.
The read/write string on most devices is set to public.
Only the NMA needs to be configured with the community strings.
* The community strings are sent across the network in cleartext.
16 Which features are supported by the Mac OS X system that make it a competitive choice for operating systems? (Choose four.)
* protected memory
sixty-two bit addressing
* preemptive multitasking
open source operating system code
* symmetric multiprocessing
* Appletalk-to-Windows network connectivity
17 Which command would enable logging on all supported destinations?
Router(config)# logging 131.152.0.0
Router(config)# logging routerA
* Router(config)# logging on
Router(config)# logging enable
Cisco CCNA 4 Exam 6 answer
Cisco CCNA 4 Exam 6 answer
1 Why are SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c community strings considered a security risk?
SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c encapsulations are not encrypted by default.
* SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c community strings are sent as cleartext.
SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c are limited to 32-bit counters.
SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c uses a connectionless protocol.
2 Which statements are true regarding configuring SNMP? (Choose three.)
It is best to use the default read-only community strings in enterprise networks.
* It is not advisable to use the default read-write community string in an enterprise network.
* More than one read-only community string is supported.
* Authorized management stations can modify MIB objects with read-write access specified.
The maximum number of read-write strings supported is one.
3 Which of the following is a collection of software which includes a GUI interface to allow the network administrator to monitor and manage the network?
* network management application
network management agent
management information base
network management protocol
4 Which of the following does SNMP use to hold information collected about the network?
network management station
network management database
* management information base
database information agent
5 Which type of information does SNMP collect about a router? (Choose three.)
routing table entries
* number of certain types of error messages received
* number of bytes in and out of a device
* status of network interfaces going up and down
number of protocols running on workstations
6 Which operating systems support multiuser capability? (Choose three.)
* Linux
Windows 98
Windows ME
* Windows XP
* Windows 2000
7 Which means of communication does an SNMP network agent use to provide a network management station with important but unsolicited information?
query
broadcast
ICMP ping
* trap
poll
8 How does RMON gather statistics on a segment?
analyzes traps on the segment
polls packets on the segment
* analyzes every frame on the segment
analyzes source and destination addresses
9 Which of the following are examples of network management applications? (Choose two.)
Windows 2000 Professional
* Ciscoworks2000
* HP Openview
Red Hat Linux
Cisco ConfigMaker
10 In the above illustration, which configuration commands can be used to specify the location of a managed device and the main system contacts for the device? (Choose two.)
SanJose(config-if)# snmp-server SanJose
* Atlanta(config)# snmp-server contact JPSmith
Atlanta(config)# snmp contact JPSmith
* SanJose(config)# snmp-server location SanJose
Chicago#(config)# snmp chicago
11 For which platform was UNIX first marketed commercially?
workstations and servers
workstations
* network servers
large mainframe systems
12 How does SNMPv3 address the security shortcomings of SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c?
improved SMI features
support for centralized and distributed management
* secure access to MIBs
control of heterogeneous networks
13 Which statements describe the Windows 2000 operating system family? (Choose three.)
* .NET Server was designed to run enterprise level web and FTP services.
Active Directory services run on both Windows 2000 Professional and Windows 2000 Server.
* The entire family of Windows 2000 operating systems can operate as a file, print, FTP or web server.
Both Windows 2000 Professional and Server can support up to 256 simultaneous dialup sessions.
* .NET server was designed to compete with Linux and Unix.
14 An SNMPv1 agent would issue a GetResponse message to reply to which NMS requests? (Choose three.)
* GetRequest
GetBulkRequest
* GetNextRequest
* SetRequest
GetNextbulkRequest
15 Which of the following describes the community strings used for SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c? (Choose two.)
* The community strings are sent using UDP.
The read only string on most devices is set to private.
The read/write string on most devices is set to public.
Only the NMA needs to be configured with the community strings.
* The community strings are sent across the network in cleartext.
16 Which features are supported by the Mac OS X system that make it a competitive choice for operating systems? (Choose four.)
* protected memory
sixty-two bit addressing
* preemptive multitasking
open source operating system code
* symmetric multiprocessing
* Appletalk-to-Windows network connectivity
17 Which command would enable logging on all supported destinations?
Router(config)# logging 131.152.0.0
Router(config)# logging routerA
* Router(config)# logging on
Router(config)# logging enable
Cisco CCNA 4 Final Exam answer
Cisco CCNA 4 Final Exam answer
1. Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN?
A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
A modem terminates an analog local loop.
A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
2. What value in the address field of a Frame Relay header identifies the destination of the frame?
DLCI
3. The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue explains why the link is unable to establish a PPP session?
The usernames are misconfigured.
4. The output of the show interfaces serial 0/0 command for a frame-relay connection indicates that the serial line is up but the line protocol is down. What are possible causes for this? (Choose two.) (2 / 5)
There is an LMI-type mismatch between the Frame Relay switch and the router.
The cable is disconnected.
5. Which statements are correct about the point in the network where the responsibility of the service provider ends?
The International point is on the customer side of the network terminating unit(NTU).
The United States point is at the interface of the customer-provided equipment and the local loop.
The point is called the demarcation point.
6. While prototyping an internetwork in the corporate lab, a network administrator is testing a serial link between serial 0/0 interfaces on two routers. The labels on the serial cable ends have been damaged and are unreadable. What command can be issued to determine which router is connected to the DCE cable end?
show controllers serial 0/0
7. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?
The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.
8. A technician enters the interface serial 0/0.1 multipoint command when configuring a router. What effect will the multipoint keyword have in this configuration?
Split-horizon issues will need to be resolved for this network if RIP is the routing protocol.
All the participating interfaces of remote routers will be configured in the same subnet.
9. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, when should a static Frame Relay map be used?
when the remote router does not support Inverse ARP
when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled
10. Which router command would be used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3 address in the internetwork in the diagram?
RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 192.168.15.2 100 broadcast
11. Which of the following ISDN protocols is responsible for call setup and call teardown?
ITU-T Q.921
12. What are two ways to resolve split-horizon issues in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.) (2 / 5)
create a full-mesh topology
use point-to-point subinterfaces
13. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco 806 broadband router?
defines which addresses are allowed into the router
14. A system administrator is unable to ping the Serial0/0 interface of RouterB from RouterA. During the troubleshooting process, the following facts are established: (0 / 5)
- IP addressing and subnet masks are correct.
- RouterA is a Cisco router and RouterB is a router from another vendor.
- RouterA is configured with the default encapsulation.
- The serial interfaces on both routers are up.
- The protocol is down on the serial interfaces of both routers.
15. What should the administrator do to solve the problem?
Change the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
16. An ISDN circuit from a branch office is remaining connected to the regional office. A network administrator determines a user has initiated a continuous ping from a desktop computer to the regional office. Which configuration change would allow the ISDN circuit to disconnect during any attempts to ping, while otherwise functioning properly?
change the dialer list to exclude ICMP as interesting
17. - call is made (1 / 6)
3,2,1,4
18. Which protocol should be chosen to support WAN connectivity in a multi-vendor system and provide strong security through authentication?
PPP with CHAP
19. Which of the following are valid steps for a basic ISDN BRI configuration?
set the SPIDs if required by the ISDN switch
»» read more
1. Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN?
A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
A modem terminates an analog local loop.
A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
2. What value in the address field of a Frame Relay header identifies the destination of the frame?
DLCI
3. The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue explains why the link is unable to establish a PPP session?
The usernames are misconfigured.
4. The output of the show interfaces serial 0/0 command for a frame-relay connection indicates that the serial line is up but the line protocol is down. What are possible causes for this? (Choose two.) (2 / 5)
There is an LMI-type mismatch between the Frame Relay switch and the router.
The cable is disconnected.
5. Which statements are correct about the point in the network where the responsibility of the service provider ends?
The International point is on the customer side of the network terminating unit(NTU).
The United States point is at the interface of the customer-provided equipment and the local loop.
The point is called the demarcation point.
6. While prototyping an internetwork in the corporate lab, a network administrator is testing a serial link between serial 0/0 interfaces on two routers. The labels on the serial cable ends have been damaged and are unreadable. What command can be issued to determine which router is connected to the DCE cable end?
show controllers serial 0/0
7. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?
The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.
8. A technician enters the interface serial 0/0.1 multipoint command when configuring a router. What effect will the multipoint keyword have in this configuration?
Split-horizon issues will need to be resolved for this network if RIP is the routing protocol.
All the participating interfaces of remote routers will be configured in the same subnet.
9. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, when should a static Frame Relay map be used?
when the remote router does not support Inverse ARP
when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled
10. Which router command would be used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3 address in the internetwork in the diagram?
RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 192.168.15.2 100 broadcast
11. Which of the following ISDN protocols is responsible for call setup and call teardown?
ITU-T Q.921
12. What are two ways to resolve split-horizon issues in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.) (2 / 5)
create a full-mesh topology
use point-to-point subinterfaces
13. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco 806 broadband router?
defines which addresses are allowed into the router
14. A system administrator is unable to ping the Serial0/0 interface of RouterB from RouterA. During the troubleshooting process, the following facts are established: (0 / 5)
- IP addressing and subnet masks are correct.
- RouterA is a Cisco router and RouterB is a router from another vendor.
- RouterA is configured with the default encapsulation.
- The serial interfaces on both routers are up.
- The protocol is down on the serial interfaces of both routers.
15. What should the administrator do to solve the problem?
Change the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
16. An ISDN circuit from a branch office is remaining connected to the regional office. A network administrator determines a user has initiated a continuous ping from a desktop computer to the regional office. Which configuration change would allow the ISDN circuit to disconnect during any attempts to ping, while otherwise functioning properly?
change the dialer list to exclude ICMP as interesting
17. - call is made (1 / 6)
3,2,1,4
18. Which protocol should be chosen to support WAN connectivity in a multi-vendor system and provide strong security through authentication?
PPP with CHAP
19. Which of the following are valid steps for a basic ISDN BRI configuration?
set the SPIDs if required by the ISDN switch
CISCO CCNA 4 - Module 1 Exam Answers
1 What is the default number of pings issued by a DHCP server to a pool address before sending the DHCPOFFER to a client?
one
* two
three
four
five
2 Refer to the graphic. Which command would allow the router to forward DHCP broadcasts from Host A to the DHCP server?
* ip helper-address
dhcp helper-address
dhcp relay-agent
dhcp-relay
3 Which of the following traffic types are supported by Cisco IOS NAT? (Choose two.)
Routing table updates
* ICMP
* FTP
BOOTP
SNMP
4 Users are complaining that they cannot attach to network resources. A technician has confirmed that clients are not properly receiving IP configuration information through the DHCP process. The network administrator wants to watch the DHCP process while the technician tries to release and renew addresses on the clients. Which command would the network administrator use to monitor the process of address allocation?
show ip dhcp server statistics
show ip dhcp binding
* debug ip dhcp server events
debug ip dhcp binding
5 Given the accompanying graphic, which command would establish a group of 32 IP addresses that could be used to hide inside addresses from the Internet?
ip nat pool Raleigh 10.0.0.32 10.0.0.63 netmask 255.255.255.224
ip nat pool Raleigh 10.0.0.32 10.0.0.63 netmask 255.255.255.240
* ip nat pool Raleigh 171.11.10.32 171.11.10.63 netmask 255.255.255.224
ip nat pool Raleigh 171.11.10.32 171.11.10.63 netmask 255.255.255.240
6 Given the accompanying diagram, which commands are necessary to implement PAT on the Raleigh router? (Choose four.)
*access-list 10 permit 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 10 permit 171.11.0.0 0.0.255.255
ip nat inside source static 192.168.10.1 171.11.0.0
*ip nat inside source list 10 interface S0 overload
*ip nat outside
*ip nat inside
7 A company was issued 207.48.12.8/29 as its registered address from its ISP. Which of the following is a solution that will allow Internet access to 300 employees simultaneously?
VLSM to further subnet the registered address and create more IP addresses
normal subnetting on the Class C network and address the host
*RFC 1918 and port address translation
this is an impossible scenario because there are not enough addresses
8 The Raleigh router shown in the diagram is configured with PAT. Which of the following must be changed if the private network is migrated to a 10.0.0.0 network? (Choose two.)
*E0 interface address
S0 interface address
*the access-list statement
the NAT outside interface
the NAT inside interface
9 What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco 806 broadband router?
defines which addresses are allowed out of the router
defines which addresses are allowed into the router
* defines which addresses can be translated
defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool
10 Which configuration parameters are provided by the dynamic allocation process of DHCP? (Choose three.)
* Gateway address
* DNS server
DHCP Server
* Subnet mask
Key server
ARP server
11 What is the purpose of the DHCPDECLINE message?
If the DHCP client received multiple DHCPOFFERs, it uses the DHCPDECLINE to refuse the offers it does not use.
If the DHCP server sends an IP configuration update that the DHCP client does not need, it uses the DHCPDECLINE to refuse the information.
The DHCP server uses the DHCPDECLINE message to refuse a DHCP client's request for IP configuration information.
* If the DHCP client detects that the address supplied by the DHCP server is in use on the network, it uses the DHCPDECLINE to refuse the offer.
12 Given the accompanying graphic, which statement would be applied to the S0 interface when configuring NAT on the Tampa router?
ip nat inside
* ip nat outside
ip pat inside
ip pat outside
13 What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?
PAT uses the word "overload" at the end of the access-list statement to share a single registered address.
Static NAT allows an unregistered address to map to multiple registered addresses.
Dynamic NAT allows hosts to receive the same global address each time external access is required.
* PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.
14 What is the default lease time for addresses assigned to clients through Easy IP?
* twenty-four hours
forty-eight hours
one week
two weeks
15 Which of the following are broadcasts sent by a client to a DHCP server? (Choose two.)
* DHCPDISCOVER
DHCPRELEASE
DHCPACK
* DHCPREQUEST
DHCPOFFER
16 Given the accompanying graphic, which addresses could be assigned to traffic leaving S0 as a result of the statement ip nat pool Tampa 179.9.8.96 179.9.8.111 netmask 255.255.255.240? (Choose two.)
10.0.0.125
179.9.8.95
* 179.9.8.98
* 179.9.8.101
179.9.8.112
17 Which configuration information might a DHCPOFFER include? (Choose three.)
* IP address
* DNS server address
DHCP binding
* Lease time
DHCP database
18 Which of the following can be done to allow the users on the 10.0.0.0 network to communicate with the Web Server shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
* Configure the Miami router to use NAT.
Configure the Web Server with a private address.
* Configure the Miami router to use PAT.
Change the Internet link IP address of 128.56.0.0 to a private address.
Configure the Tampa router to use PAT.
19 A network administrator needs to configure a router to offer DHCP services. Assuming the router is operating with factory defaults and the IOS supports DHCP, what must be done to start the DHCP service?
Use the global configuration command service dhcp.
Use the privileged command service dhcp start.
Use the start service dhcp command during the setup processes.
* Do nothing. The DHCP service is enabled by default during start up.
20 Given the accompanying debug output from a Cisco router, what kind of address is 10.10.10.3 with the IP identification number of 29855?
* inside local
inside global
outside local
outside global
21 In addition to assigning addresses from predefined pools, which other services can a DHCP server offer? (Choose three.)
*DNS server addresses
*domain names
global IP assignments
NAT translations
*WINS server addresses
»» read more
one
* two
three
four
five
2 Refer to the graphic. Which command would allow the router to forward DHCP broadcasts from Host A to the DHCP server?
* ip helper-address
dhcp helper-address
dhcp relay-agent
dhcp-relay
3 Which of the following traffic types are supported by Cisco IOS NAT? (Choose two.)
Routing table updates
* ICMP
* FTP
BOOTP
SNMP
4 Users are complaining that they cannot attach to network resources. A technician has confirmed that clients are not properly receiving IP configuration information through the DHCP process. The network administrator wants to watch the DHCP process while the technician tries to release and renew addresses on the clients. Which command would the network administrator use to monitor the process of address allocation?
show ip dhcp server statistics
show ip dhcp binding
* debug ip dhcp server events
debug ip dhcp binding
5 Given the accompanying graphic, which command would establish a group of 32 IP addresses that could be used to hide inside addresses from the Internet?
ip nat pool Raleigh 10.0.0.32 10.0.0.63 netmask 255.255.255.224
ip nat pool Raleigh 10.0.0.32 10.0.0.63 netmask 255.255.255.240
* ip nat pool Raleigh 171.11.10.32 171.11.10.63 netmask 255.255.255.224
ip nat pool Raleigh 171.11.10.32 171.11.10.63 netmask 255.255.255.240
6 Given the accompanying diagram, which commands are necessary to implement PAT on the Raleigh router? (Choose four.)
*access-list 10 permit 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 10 permit 171.11.0.0 0.0.255.255
ip nat inside source static 192.168.10.1 171.11.0.0
*ip nat inside source list 10 interface S0 overload
*ip nat outside
*ip nat inside
7 A company was issued 207.48.12.8/29 as its registered address from its ISP. Which of the following is a solution that will allow Internet access to 300 employees simultaneously?
VLSM to further subnet the registered address and create more IP addresses
normal subnetting on the Class C network and address the host
*RFC 1918 and port address translation
this is an impossible scenario because there are not enough addresses
8 The Raleigh router shown in the diagram is configured with PAT. Which of the following must be changed if the private network is migrated to a 10.0.0.0 network? (Choose two.)
*E0 interface address
S0 interface address
*the access-list statement
the NAT outside interface
the NAT inside interface
9 What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco 806 broadband router?
defines which addresses are allowed out of the router
defines which addresses are allowed into the router
* defines which addresses can be translated
defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool
10 Which configuration parameters are provided by the dynamic allocation process of DHCP? (Choose three.)
* Gateway address
* DNS server
DHCP Server
* Subnet mask
Key server
ARP server
11 What is the purpose of the DHCPDECLINE message?
If the DHCP client received multiple DHCPOFFERs, it uses the DHCPDECLINE to refuse the offers it does not use.
If the DHCP server sends an IP configuration update that the DHCP client does not need, it uses the DHCPDECLINE to refuse the information.
The DHCP server uses the DHCPDECLINE message to refuse a DHCP client's request for IP configuration information.
* If the DHCP client detects that the address supplied by the DHCP server is in use on the network, it uses the DHCPDECLINE to refuse the offer.
12 Given the accompanying graphic, which statement would be applied to the S0 interface when configuring NAT on the Tampa router?
ip nat inside
* ip nat outside
ip pat inside
ip pat outside
13 What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?
PAT uses the word "overload" at the end of the access-list statement to share a single registered address.
Static NAT allows an unregistered address to map to multiple registered addresses.
Dynamic NAT allows hosts to receive the same global address each time external access is required.
* PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.
14 What is the default lease time for addresses assigned to clients through Easy IP?
* twenty-four hours
forty-eight hours
one week
two weeks
15 Which of the following are broadcasts sent by a client to a DHCP server? (Choose two.)
* DHCPDISCOVER
DHCPRELEASE
DHCPACK
* DHCPREQUEST
DHCPOFFER
16 Given the accompanying graphic, which addresses could be assigned to traffic leaving S0 as a result of the statement ip nat pool Tampa 179.9.8.96 179.9.8.111 netmask 255.255.255.240? (Choose two.)
10.0.0.125
179.9.8.95
* 179.9.8.98
* 179.9.8.101
179.9.8.112
17 Which configuration information might a DHCPOFFER include? (Choose three.)
* IP address
* DNS server address
DHCP binding
* Lease time
DHCP database
18 Which of the following can be done to allow the users on the 10.0.0.0 network to communicate with the Web Server shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
* Configure the Miami router to use NAT.
Configure the Web Server with a private address.
* Configure the Miami router to use PAT.
Change the Internet link IP address of 128.56.0.0 to a private address.
Configure the Tampa router to use PAT.
19 A network administrator needs to configure a router to offer DHCP services. Assuming the router is operating with factory defaults and the IOS supports DHCP, what must be done to start the DHCP service?
Use the global configuration command service dhcp.
Use the privileged command service dhcp start.
Use the start service dhcp command during the setup processes.
* Do nothing. The DHCP service is enabled by default during start up.
20 Given the accompanying debug output from a Cisco router, what kind of address is 10.10.10.3 with the IP identification number of 29855?
* inside local
inside global
outside local
outside global
21 In addition to assigning addresses from predefined pools, which other services can a DHCP server offer? (Choose three.)
*DNS server addresses
*domain names
global IP assignments
NAT translations
*WINS server addresses
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