Purely Arribuh: December 2007

Assessment Cisco Program Edit

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Cisco Networking Academy Program

CCNA 1 Networking Basics (Version 3.1)

CISCO CCNA 1 - Module 1 Exam Answers

CISCO CCNA 1 - Module 2 Exam Answers

CISCO CCNA 1 - Module 3 Exam Answers

CISCO CCNA 1 - Module 4 Exam Answers

CISCO CCNA 1 - Module 5 Exam Answers

CISCO CCNA 1 - Module 6 Exam Answers

CISCO CCNA 1 - Module 6/7 Exam Answers

CISCO CCNA 1 - Module 7 Exam Answers

CISCO CCNA 1 - Module 8 Exam Answers

CISCO CCNA 1 - Module 9 Exam Answers

CISCO CCNA 1 - Module 9/10 Exam Answers

CISCO CCNA 1 - Module 10 Exam Answers

CISCO CCNA 1 - Module 11 Exam Answers

CISCO CCNA 1- Practice Final Answers

CISCO CCNA 1- Final Exam Answers

CCNA 2 Router and Routing Basics (Version 3.1)

CISCO CCNA 2 - Module 1 Exam Answers

CISCO CCNA 2 - Module 2 Exam Answers

CISCO CCNA 2 - Module 3 Exam Answers

CISCO CCNA 2 - Module 4 Exam Answers

CISCO CCNA 2 - Module 5 Exam Answers

CISCO CCNA 2 - Module 6 Exam Answers

CISCO CCNA 2 - Module 7 Exam Answers

CISCO CCNA 2 - Module 8 Exam Answers

CISCO CCNA 2 - Module 9 Exam Answers

CISCO CCNA 2 - Module 10 Exam Answers

CISCO CCNA 2 - Module 11 Exam Answers

CISCO CCNA 2 - Voucher Exam

CISCO CCNA 2 - Practice Exam Answer

CISCO CCNA 2 - Final Exam Answers

CCNA 3 Switching Basics and Intermediate Routing (Version 3.1)

CCNA 4 Switching Basics and Intermediate Routing (Version 3.1)

CISCO CCNA 4 - Voucher Exam

CCNA 1 (Version 4.1)

CCNA 2 (Version 4.1)

CCNA 3 (Version 4.1)

Discover 1 (Version 4.1)

Discover 2 (Version 4.1)

Exploration 4.0 (Version 4.1)

»» read more

CISCO CCNA 1 - Module 2 Exam Answers

1. Which layer of the OSI model provides network services to processes in electronic mail and file transfer programs?
• data link
• transport
• network
• application

2. Which of the following are data link layer encapsulation details? (Choose two.)
• A header and trailer are added.
• Data is converted into packets.
• Packets are packaged into frames.
• Frames are divided into segments.
• Packets are changed into bits for Internet travel.

3. Which three features apply to LAN connections? (Choose three.)
• operate using serial interfaces
• make network connection using a hub
• limited to operation over small geographic areas
• provide part-time connectivity to remote services
• typically operate under local administrative control
• provide lower bandwidth services compared to WANs

4. Which layer of the OSI model provides connectivity and path selection between two end systems where routing occurs?
• physical layer
• data link layer
• network layer
• transport layer

5. Which term describes the process of adding headers to data as it moves down OSI layers?
• division
• encoding
• separation
• segmentation
• encapsulation

6. Refer to the following list. Choose the correct order of data encapsulation when a device sends information.
1. segments
2. bits
3. packets
4. data
5. frames
• 1 - 3 - 5 - 4 - 2
• 2 - 1 - 3 - 5 - 4
• 2 - 4 - 3 - 5 - 1
• 4 - 3 - 1 - 2 - 5
• 4 - 1 - 3 - 5 - 2
• 3 - 5 - 1 - 2 - 4

7. The central hub has malfunctioned in the network. As a result, the entire network is down. Which type of physical network topology is implemented?
• bus
• star
• ring
• mesh

8. Which of the following are factors that determine throughput? (Choose two.)
• types of passwords used on servers
• type of Layer 3 protocol used
• network topology
• width of the network cable
• number of users on the network

9. Which best describes the function of the physical layer?
• Defines the electrical and functional specifications for the link between end systems.
• Provides reliable transit of data across a physical link.
• Provides connectivity and path selection between two end systems.
• Concerned with physical addressing, network topology and media access.

10. Which of the following are ways that bandwidth is commonly measured? (Choose three.)
• GHzps
• kbps
• Mbps
• Nbps
• MHzps
• Gbps

11. Which of the following are layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
• Application
• Physical
• Internet
• Network Access
• Presentation

12. What is the term used to describe the transport layer protocol data unit?
• bits
• packets
• segments
• frames
• data streams

13. What makes it easier for different networking vendors to design software and hardware that will interoperate?
• OSI model
• proprietary designs
• IP addressing scheme
• standard logical topologies
• standard physical topologies

14.

Refer to the exhibit. Which column shows the correct sequence of OSI model layers?
• A
• B
• C
• D

15. What is one advantage of defining network communication by the seven layers of the OSI model?
• It increases the bandwidth of a network.
• It makes networking easier to learn and understand.
• It eliminates many protocol restrictions.
• It increases the throughput of a network.
• It reduces the need for testing network connectivity.

16. Which two features apply to WAN connections? (Choose two.)
• operate using serial interfaces
• make network connection using a hub
• limited to operation over small geographic areas
• typically operate under local administrative control
• provide lower bandwidth services compared to LANs

17. A switch has failed in the network. As a result, only one segment of the network is down. Which type of physical network topology is implemented?
• bus
• ring
• star
• extended star

18.

Refer to the exhibit. Identify the devices labeled A, B, C, and D in the network physical documentation.
• A=bridge, B=switch, C=router, D=hub
• A=bridge, B=hub, C=router, D=switch
• A=bridge, B=router, C=hub, D=switch
• A=hub, B=bridge, C=router, D=switch

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CISCO CCNA 1 - Module 1 Exam Answers

1. Several computers in the company require new NICs. A technician has located a good price on the Internet for the purchase of these NICs. Before these NICs are purchased and installed, what details must be verified? (Choose three.)
• the MAC address on
• the NICthe size of the RAM on the NIC
• the bandwidth supported by the NIC
• the type of media supported by the NIC
• the type of network architecture supported by the NIC

2. What is the hexadecimal equivalent for the binary number 00100101?
• 15
• 20
• 25
• 30
• 37
• 40

3. Which phrases describe a byte? (Choose two.)
• a single binary digit
• +5 volts of electricity
• the value range 0 to 127
• a grouping of eight binary digits
• a single addressable data storage location

4. Which specialized equipment is used to make a physical connection from a PC to a network?
• router
• RAM
• CD ROM
• network interface card

5. What is the binary equivalent for the decimal number 248?
• 11100000
• 11110000
• 11110100
• 11111000

6. Convert the binary number 01011011 into its hexadecimal equivalent.
Select the correct answer from the list below.
• 5A
• 5b
• 5c
• 5d
• 6b
• 7a

7. What is the binary equivalent for decimal number 149?
• 10010111
• 10010101
• 10011001
• 10010111
• 10101011
• 10101101

8. In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of the eight bits?
• 128
• 254
• 255
• 256
• 512
• 1024

9. Which device connects a computer with a telephone line by providing modulation and demodulation of incoming and outgoing data?
• NIC
• CSU/DSU
• router
• modem
• telco switch

10. What is the binary equivalent for the decimal number 162?
• 10101010
• 10100010
• 10100100
• 10101101
• 10110000
• 10101100

11. Which of the following are popular web browsers? (Choose two.)
• Acrobat
• Internet Explorer
• Macromedia Flash
• Netscape Navigator
• Quicktime
• World Wide Web

12. Convert the Base 10 number 116 into its eight bit binary equivalent. Choose the correct answer from the following list:
• 01111010
• 01110010
• 01110100
• 01110110
• 01110111
• 01010110

13. What is the hexadecimal equivalent for the binary number 10001110?
• 22
• 67
• 142
• AE
• 8E

14. Represented as a decimal number, what is the result of the logical ANDing of binary numbers 00100011 and 11111100?
• 3
• 32
• 35
• 220
• 255

15. Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
• 11110010
• 11011011
• 11110110
• 11100111
• 11100101
• 11101110

16. What are three conditions that would require a network administrator to install a new NIC? (Choose three.)
• whenever a NIC is damaged
• when there is a need to provide a secondary or backup NIC
• when there is a change from copper media to wireless
• whenever operating system security patches are applied
• whenever the PC has been moved to a different location

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CISCO CCNA 1 - Module 4 Exam Answers

1. To ensure reliable LAN communications, what should a technician be looking for when attaching connectors to the ends of UTP cable?
• that the white-orange/orange pair is attached first
• That the wire pairs remain twisted as much as possible
• that one end of the shield is properly ground but not the other
• that 50 ohm termination resistors are on both ends

2. Which of the following describes frequency?
• length of each wave
• height of each wave
• number of cycles each second
• amount of time between each wave

3. How are binary ones and zeros represented in fiber optic installations? (Choose two.)
• +5 volts/-5 volts
• 0 volts/5 volts
• light/no light
• high to low electrical transition
• low to high electrical transition
• increasing/decreasing light intensity

4. What is expected when crosstalk is present in networks with higher transmission frequencies? (Choose two.)
• jitter
• increase in crosstalk
• higher signal attenuation
• increases in cancellation effect
• destruction of more of the data signal

5. A small company is experiencing difficulties on its LAN. After performing some tests, a technician has determined that the copper media supporting the LAN is experiencing abnormal attenuation. What are two possible causes of the problem? (Choose two.)
• defective connectors
• excessively long cable lengths
• use of higher grade cabling
• low frequency signals used in the media
• network cable runs isolated from other cables

6. What factors need to be considered to limit the amount of signal attenuation in Ethernet cable runs? (Choose two.)
• type of users
• number of users
• length of cable
• type of electrical equipment
• installation of connectors on the cable

7. What conditions are described when transmission signals from one wire pair affects another wire pair? (Choose two.)
• noise
• resistance mismatch
• jitter
• crosstalk
• attenuation

8. What is a cause of crosstalk in UTP cable?
• cable pairs that are shorted
• cable pairs crossed during termination
• cabling runs installed in separate conduit
• cable pairs that are untwisted because of poor termination of the cable

9. Which of the following are detected by the wire map test? (Choose three.)
• near-end crosstalk (NEXT)
• opens
• propagation delay
• return loss
• reversed-pair faults
• short circuits

10. A company needs to extend the LAN to six separate buildings. To limit the amount of signal attenuation on the LAN media, what type of media would be the best to use between the buildings?
• air (wireless)
• coaxial cable
• fiber
• shielded twisted pair
• unshielded twisted pair

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CISCO CCNA 1 - Module 3 Exam Answers

1. What are two advantages of using UTP cable in a networking environment? (Choose two.)
• is stiffer than STP
• is less expensive than fiber
• is easier to install than coaxial
• provides longer distances than coaxial provides
• is less susceptible to outside noise sources than fiber is

2. What are two advantages of using fiber-optic cabling instead of UTP? (Choose two.)
• lower cost
• easer to install
• allows longer distances
• less effected by external signals
• easier to terminate the cable ends

3. What is the difference between a wireless NIC and an Ethernet NIC?
• The Ethernet NIC operates at 100 Mbps, whereas a wireless NIC operates at 10 Mbps.
• The Ethernet NIC uses a PCI expansion slot, and a wireless NIC cannot use an expansion slot.
• The wireless NIC uses CSMA/CA, whereas a Ethernet NIC uses token passing as an access method.
• The wireless NIC associates to an access point, and an Ethernet NIC attaches to a hub or switch using a cable.
• The Ethernet NIC attaches to a hub or a switch using only fiber cabling, and a wireless NIC attaches to a wireless antenna using air as a network medium.

4. Which wireless standard operates in the 5 GHZ transmission range and is capable of 54 Mbps of data throughput?
• 802.11
• 802.11a
• 802.11b
• 802.11g

5. A company is converting a cabled LAN to a wireless Ethernet LAN. What must be changed on every host on the network?
• No changes are required.
• Each host will require a new IP address.
• Each host will require an appropriate NIC or adapter.
• Each host will require that the operating system be upgraded.

6.

Refer to the exhibit. Which answer correctly identifies the pinout of the UTP cables labeled Cable A, Cable B, and Cable C?
• A=straight, B=rollover, C=crossover
• A=rollover, B=crossover, C=straight
• A=crossover, B=straight, C=straight
• A=crossover, B=straight, C=rollover
• A=straight, B=crossover, C=rollover
• A=rollover, B=straight, C=crossover

7. What factors should be considered when selecting the appropriate cable for connecting a PC to a network? (Choose two.)
• type of system bus
• motherboard model
• distance of cable run
• speed of transmission
• computer manufacturer

8. Which Ethernet implementation requires the signal on the media to be boosted at a maximum distance of 100 meters?
• 10BASE2
• 10BASE5
• 100BASE-T
• 100BASE-FX
• 1000BASE-CX

9. When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
• when configuring a router
• when connecting a host to a host
• when connecting a switch to a router
• when connecting one switch to another switch

10. What type of cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between a host and a LAN switch?
• console
• rollover
• crossover
• straight-through

11. Which of the following are used for data communication signals? (Choose three.)
• light patterns
• electrical voltages
• controlled air pulses
• mixed media impulses
• magnetized fluid wave
• modulated electromagnetic waves

12. What does UTP cable rely on to reduce signal degradation caused by EMI and RFI?
• shielding
• magnetism
• cancellation
• insulation
• properly grounded connections
• RJ-45 connectors

13. Select the characteristics specified by 10BaseT. (Choose three.)
• twisted pair cable
• T style connectors
• baseband transmission
• 10 gigabits per second data rate
• 10 megabits per second data
• decimal encoded data transmission

14.

Refer to the exhibit. What type of cable connects the two routers together without any intermediary device?
• console
• rollover
• crossover
• straight-through

15. Which cable connectors are used to connect a cable from a router's console port to a PC? (Choose two.)
• RJ-11
• RJ-12
• RJ-45
• DB-8
• DB-9
• DB-10

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CISCO CCNA 1 - Module 5 Exam Answers

Refer to the exhibit. What is the appropriate cable to use at each of the numbered network connections?
• 1-crossover; 2-straight-through; 3-crossover; 4-straight-through
• 1-straight-through; 2-crossover; 3-straight-through; 4-straight-through
• 1-straight-through; 2-crossover; 3-crossover; 4-straight-through
• 1-rollover; 2-crossover; 3-straight-through; 4-straight-through
• 1-rollover; 2-straight-through; 3-straight-through; 4-straight-through

2. Which two devices are considered OSI Layer 1 devices? (Choose two.)
• hubs
• routers
• bridges
• switches
• repeaters

3. What device is used to connect hosts to an Ethernet LAN and requires a straight-through UTP cable between the hosts and this device?
• NIC
• router
• switch
• server

4. What is the most common type of cabling used in LANs?
• STP
• UTP
• coax
• fiber

5. In which situations would a crossover cable be used to connect devices in a network? (Choose two.)
• switch to PC
• switch to hub
• switch to router
• switch to server
• switch to switch

6.

Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains exist in the network?
• 1
• 2
• 4
• 7
• 8

7. What type of cable would be used to make the connection between the console port of a router and a workstation?
• crossover
• rollover
• straight-through
• patch

8.

Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the exhibit?
• transmission of data
• reception of data
• clocking for the synchronous link
• noise cancellation in transmitted data

9. Which address does a bridge use to make filtering and switching decisions?
• source MAC
• source IP
• destination MAC
• destination IP
• network IP address

10. What is characteristic of how a hub operates?
• A hub selectively drops packets that represent potential security risks.
• A hub forwards data out all interfaces except the inbound interface.
• A hub dynamically learns the interfaces to which all devices are attached.
• At start up, a hub queries the devices on all interfaces in order to learn the MAC addresses of the attached devices.
• A hub transmits a frame to a specific interface based on the destination MAC address.

11. Users with systems that are attached to a hub are complaining about poor response time. What device could replace the hub and provide immediate response time improvement?
• router
• switch
• bridge
• repeater

12. Which of the following are benefits of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose three.)
• centralized security
• easy to create
• very scalable
• no centralized equipment required
• centralized administrator not required
• centralized control of assets

13. Which statement is accurate about a WAN link?
• The link transmits data serially.
• The link uses a maximum distance of 100 meters.
• The link uses the same transmission rate as all other WAN links use.
• The link uses the same standardized connector style that is used for all WAN technologies.

14.

Which items in the exhibit are DTE devices?
• A and B
• B and C
• C and D
• A and D
• A, B, C, and D

15. At which layer of the OSI model does the MAC address of a NIC reside?
• physical
• application
• network
• transport
• data link
• session

16.

Refer to the exhibit. A technician measured the lengths of the CAT 5e structured cable runs in the exhibit. How should the technician evaluate the cabling shown in the diagram to the network administrator?
• All cabling to work areas are within specifications.
• Station A and B may experience intermittent problems because the length exceeds the recommended standard.
• Station B may experience intermittent problems because the length exceeds the recommended standard.
• Station C may experience intermittent network connectivity because the length is less than the recommended standard.
• Station A and B will have intermittent problems because the length exceeds the recommended standard.
• Station C will not have network connectivity because the length is less than the recommended standard.

17. Which statement describes a typical use of Gigabit Ethernet?
• to provide high-speed desktop connectivity for average users
• to provide connectivity to low to medium volume applications
• to provide medium volume connectivity to workgroup servers
• to provide high-speed connectivity for backbones and cross connects

18.

The ends of a UTP cable are shown in the exhibit. Which cable configuration is shown?
• crossover
• rollover
• reversed-pair
• straight-through
• split-pair
• console

19.

The ends of a UTP cable are shown in the exhibit. Which cable configuration is shown?
• console
• crossover
• rollover
• reversed-pair
• split-pair
• straight-through

20. Which of the following are benefits of a wireless network? (Choose two.)
• higher data speeds
• better security
• mobility
• less expensive NIC cards
• no need to run cables to hosts

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CISCO CCNA 1 - Module 6 Exam Answers

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is communicating with host F. What happens to a frame sent from host A to host F as it travels over the Ethernet segments?
• The frame format is modified as it passes through each switch.
• The frame format remains the same across each Ethernet segment.
• The frame format is modified as the media speed changed at switch B and switch E.
• The frame format is modified as the media material changes between copper and fiber at switch C and switch D.

2. How many hexadecimal digits are in a MAC address?
• 2
• 8
• 12
•16
• 32

3. What are three functions of a NIC in a PC? (Choose three.)
• A NIC connects the PC to the network media.
• A NIC detects collisions on the Ethernet segment.
• A NIC checks the formatting of data before it is transmitted.
• A NIC passes the contents of selected frames to the upper OSI layers.
• A NIC acknowledges and retransmits data that was not received properly.
• A NIC discards frames when the destination IP address does not match the local host.

4. At what layer of the OSI model does a MAC address reside?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4
• 7

5. A router has an Ethernet, Token Ring, serial, and ISDN interface. Which interfaces will have a MAC address?
• serial and ISDN interfaces
• Ethernet and Token Ring interfaces
• Ethernet and ISDN interfaces
• Token Ring and serial interfaces

6. In an Ethernet LAN, how does the NIC know when it can transmit data?
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data as soon as the frame is received.
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data as soon as the NIC receives a token.
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data when it senses a collision.
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data after listening for the absence of a signal on the media.

7. Which characteristics describe carrier sense multiple access collision detect (CSMA/CD)? (Choose three.)
• reliable
• point-to-point
• nondeterministic
• connection-oriented
• collision environment
• first-come, first-served approach

8. Which two devices can provide full-duplex Ethernet connections? (Choose two.)
• hub
• modem
• repeater
• NIC
• Layer 2 switch

9. On a local area network, one workstation can send data on the line while it is receiving data. What type of data transfer does this describe?
• hybrid
• half duplex
• full duplex
• multilink

10.

Refer to the exhibit. The small office network shown in the exhibit consists of four computers connected through a hub. Which configuration would cause collisions and errors on the network?
• autonegotiation
• FastEthernet
• peer-to-peer shared resources
• administratively configured full duplex

11.

Refer to the exhibit. A technician wants to increase the available bandwidth for the workstation by allowing the switch and the NIC on the workstation to transmit and receive simultaneously. What will permit this?
• CSMA/CD
• full-duplex
• FastEthernet
• crossover cable

16. Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?
• A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
• A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
• A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
• A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.

17. In which two layers of the OSI model does Ethernet function? (Choose two.)
• application
• session
• transport
• network
• data link
• physical

18. Which of the following are specified by IEEE standards as sublayers of the OSI data link layer? (Choose two.)
• Logical Link Control
• Logical Layer Control
• Media Access Control
• Logical Link Communication
• Media Access Communication
• Physical Access Communication

19. Where does the MAC address originate?
• DHCP server database
• configured by the administrator
• burned into ROM on the NIC card
• network configuration on the computer
• included in the creation of the processor chip

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CISCO CCNA 1 - Module 7 Exam Answers

1. Which Ethernet standard does the IEEE 802.3 standard recommend for backbone installations?
• 10BASE-T
• 100BASE-T
• 100BASE-FX
• 1000BASE-LX

2. Which statements describe Gigabit Ethernet technology? (Choose two.)
• operates at 100 Mbps
• typically used for backbone cabling
• requires shielded twisted-pair cabling
• can be implemented over copper and fiber
• primarily used between workstations option

3. Which of the following are Fast Ethernet technologies? (Choose two.)
• 100BASE-5
• 100BASE2
• 1000BASE-F
• 100BASE-FX
• 100BASE-TX

4. To make sure timing limitations are not violated when implementing a 10 Mbps Ethernet network involving hubs or repeaters, a technician should adhere to which rule?
• the 4-5-3 rule
• the 6-4-2 rule
• the 3-4-5 rule
• the 5-4-3 rule

5. At which OSI layer do the differences between standard Ethernet, Fast Ethernet and Gigabit Ethernet occur?
• physical layer
• data link layer
• network layer
• transport layer

6. How does 1000BASE-T use the UTP wire pairs to accomplish transmission?
• two pairs are used to transmit and two pairs are used to receive
• one pair is used to transmit, one pair is used to receive, one pair is used for clocking, and one pair is used for error correction
• all four pairs are used in parallel by both hosts to transmit and receive simultaneously
• two pairs of wires are used as in 10BASE-T and 100BASE-TX

7. What RJ-45 pins are unused when transmitting and receiving data in an Ethernet 100BASE-T Category 5 UTP cable? (Choose two.)
• 1 and 2
• 3 and 6
• 4 and 5
• 7 and 8

8. What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal attenuation affects the data delivery?
• 100 meters
• 185 meters
• 300 meters
• 500 meters

9. Which media types can be used in an implementation of a 10BASE-T network? (Choose three.)
• Category 5 UTP
• Category 5e UTP
• Category 3 UTP
• coaxial cable
• multi-mode fiber
• single mode fiber

10. Which of the following Ethernet technologies are considered legacy Ethernet? (Choose three.)
• 10BASE2
• 10BASE5
• 10BASE-T
• 100BASE-T
• 100BASE-FX
• 100BASE-TX

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CISCO CCNA 1 - Module 6/7 Exam Answers

1. Which of the following are specified by IEEE standards as sublayers of the OSI data link layer? (Choose two.)
• Logical Link Control
• Logical Layer Control
• Media Access Control
• Logical Link Communication
• Media Access Communication
• Physical Access Communication

2.

Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
• No collisions will occur on this link.
• Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
• The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
• The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

10. What are three functions of a NIC in a PC? (Choose three.)
• A NIC connects the PC to the network media.
• A NIC detects collisions on the Ethernet segment.
• A NIC checks the formatting of data before it is transmitted.
• A NIC passes the contents of selected frames to the upper OSI layers.
• A NIC acknowledges and retransmits data that was not received properly.
• A NIC discards frames when the destination IP address does not match the local host.

11. In an Ethernet LAN, how does the NIC know when it can transmit data?
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data as soon as the frame is received.
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data as soon as the NIC receives a token.
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data when it senses a collision.
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data after listening for the absence of a signal on the media.

12.

Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
• Hosts 1 and 4 may be operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
• The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
• After the end of the jam signal, Hosts 1, 2, 3, and 4 invoke a backoff algorithm.
• When the four hosts detect the collision, Hosts 1, 2, 3, and 4 generate a jam signal.
• Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
• If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle, before transmitting.

13. Which statement describes how CSMA/CD on an Ethernet segment manages the retransmission of frames after a collision occurs?
• The first device to detect the collision has the priority for retransmission.
• The device with the lowest MAC address determines the retransmission priority.
• The devices on the network segment hold an election for priority to retransmit data
• The devices transmitting when the collision occurs DO NOT have priority for retransmission.

14. What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal attenuation affects the data delivery?
• 100 meters
• 185 meters
• 300 meters
• 500 meters

15. Which of the following are Fast Ethernet technologies? (Choose two.)
• 100BASE-5
• 100BASE2
• 1000BASE-F
• 100BASE-FX
• 100BASE-TX

16. At which OSI layer do the differences between standard Ethernet, Fast Ethernet and Gigabit Ethernet occur?
• physical layer
• data link layer
• network layer
• transport layer

17. How does 1000BASE-T use the UTP wire pairs to accomplish transmission?
• two pairs are used to transmit and two pairs are used to receive
• one pair is used to transmit, one pair is used to receive, one pair is used for clocking, and one pair is used for error correction
• all four pairs are used in parallel by both hosts to transmit and receive simultaneously
• two pairs of wires are used as in 10BASE-T and 100BASE-TX

18. Which statements describe Gigabit Ethernet technology? (Choose two.)
• operates at 100 Mbps
• typically used for backbone cabling
• requires shielded twisted-pair cabling
• can be implemented over copper and fiber
• primarily used between workstations option

19. Which media types can be used in an implementation of a 10BASE-T network? (Choose three.)
• Category 5 UTP
• Category 5e UTP
• Category 3 UTP
• coaxial cable
• multi-mode fiber
• single mode fiber

20. Which of the following Ethernet technologies are considered legacy Ethernet? (Choose three.)
• 10BASE2
• 10BASE5
• 10BASE-T
• 100BASE-T
• 100BASE-FX
• 100BASE-TX

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